That's not really fair. Truthseeker's explaination is actually technically correct (that is to say, the explaination of the model is correct... the correctness of the model, on the other hand..)
If we think of a tube of equally space billard balls, vertically, and we assume that every ball is at rest by some magical force until it is contacted. Then when we drop a ball down the tube, it will hit the first ball, transfer all of it's momentum, momentarily come to rest, and then begin free-falling.
The net effect is every ball will follow the same path. It will get hit from above, inheret that speed, accelerate downwards, hit the ball below, come to a complete stop, and then enter freefall.
The net effect of this is that the "collapse wave" will proceed at freefall speed. The first ball will accelerate one floor, and transfer that velocity to the next ball who will fall at freefall acceleration, etc, etc. The "collapse wave", then, proceeds at freefall.
It's well established that the collapse doesn't proceed at freefall, so why is our model making an incorrect prediction? As has been pointed out, repeatedly, the collapse isn't elastic. An elastic model is fundamentally flawed. As has been repeatedly shown, a perfectly inelastic model of collapse is far more accurate and produces much better predictions.
I'm actually thankful for truthseeker for explaining this billiard ball model to me. The concept actually makes enough sense to be wrong. That is one step above Judy's "Newton's First Law implies pulverization is impossible". This statement makes so little sense that it brings to mind Everyones Favorite Wolfgang Pauli Quote (EFWPQ, if you will).