That's not only bad reasoning, it's insulting. Please, tell us what a "true" contradiction is. Do only "true" Scottsmen utter them?
No need to be impertinent. I meant, naturally, a real rather than a merely apparent (at first glance) contradiction. Two propositions are inconsistent in a strictly logical sense if, and only if, they cannot in any manner both be true, and to wit, if the truth of one would entail the falsity of the other.
davefoc said:
One of the things that I would like to see us do as part of this skeptiwiki biblical errors project is to choose about one error a month and discuss it and perhaps have the results effect the skeptiwiki artidle on that error. It was my intention to try this at least, but some combination of being busy and procrastination has prevented me from doing anything about the idea.
I think the forum is lucky to have ceo_esq because he often provides balance in these discussions. It is easy for the less informed amongst us (such as myself) to go read a site that is touting biblical errors and end up with the notion that the case for a particular error or inconsistency is stronger than it is. Several times ceo_esq's comments have made me realize that there is more than one side to the story.
Having said that, I was surprised that ceo_esq rejected some of those discrepancies so easily. I was hoping that he would expand on why.
Well, first of all, I think your idea is a good one. And you honor me greatly with your compliment.
Before answering your question, I should reiterate that I only examined three alleged contradictions from this site. I picked ones that looked (from the headings) unfamiliar to me, just for the novelty value. I can't characterize the whole site on the basis of that sampling, of course.
The first one was #45, "How did Simon Peter learn that Jesus was the Christ?" The site's point is that in Matthew 16:17, Jesus tells Peter that the knowledge of Christ's nature was revealed to Peter by God, rather than by flesh and blood. Yet in John 1:41 (earlier in the narrative timeline), Peter's brother Andrew tells Peter that he's found the Messiah.
It seems to me there's obviously a difference between Peter hearing from somebody else that Jesus is Christ, and Peter actually knowing, or becoming convinced, that Jesus is Christ. In the Matthew passage, in fact, Jesus draws the same distinction. He's just asked Peter first "Who have you heard from other people that I am?", and then he asks, "But who do
you say that I am?"
Imagine that your brother sets you up on a blind date, telling you "I've definitely found the right woman for you to marry", and it turns out that later you do fall in love and become persuaded in your own mind that this
is the right woman for you to marry. Now imagine that someone asks you how you first knew that she was "the one". Whatever your answer is, it's probably not going to be "I heard it from my brother." That's just silly. So I think both Matthew 16:17 and John 1:41 could hypothetically be true, meaning that there is not a contradiction between them. Any apparent "contradiction" is just a function of an unnaturally literal reading of what the characters are saying.
As time permits, I'll try to revisit the other two supposed contradictions I mentioned.