The first rule of having a "cooperative conversation" is to not spew out one fallacy after the other. Should I just ignore that you make straw-men and non sequitur arguments out of my posts?
I believe that we have probably passed the point of having a productive conversation, but let me say at least this. Every one of my responses to you have been based on my good-faith interpretations of your arguments, incorporating the principle of charity in which it is assumed that an author intends the most plausible meaning that can reasonably be ascribed to his words. Having done so, the burden then shifts to you to correct any misinterpretations of your arguments that I may make by clarifying your position. Despite my repeated requests that you do just that, you have instead accused me of dishonesty in every response, and sought to impugn my credentials, as if that has any bearing on the validity of my criticisms of your position. My job here is not to guess at what's in your head, only to have you scream "Fallacy!" every time I (supposedly) get it wrong, yet refuse to actually clarify your position.
I already did several times. Most philosophy is a waste of time because it's obsolete and/or based heavily on semantics.
By "semantics," do you mean what you said a couple of posts ago, that philosophers spend a lot of time arguing over definitions of terms? I would agree that that's a fair criticism of some contemporary philosophy, but I don't think you'll see much of it in the classic and enduring works. Part of the problem, I think, is that philosophical inquiry just isn't as bold as it used to be; if all of philosophy is footnotes to Plato, then most twentieth-century philosophy is just footnotes to the Enlightenment (with some notable exceptions). We're not so much forging new ground as retracing the steps taken by those before. But I don't think that the fact that philosophy has (arguably, in some fields) experienced a bit of a creative lull over the past century or so means... whatever you seem to think it means, which I'm still not clear on.
I'll give you some examples, because it's a long story. But take the metaphysics of Aristotle, they were once very interesting, but now most of the questions are answered by physics, biology, chemistry etc.. The same could be said about Thales, Anaximenes, Descartes, Locke etc. Once good questions, but now largely settled by science.
Yes, as I think has been pretty firmly established at this point, much of the old metaphysics gave rise to empirical science. But, again, I fail to see the significance of this to whatever argument or criticism you're trying to make.
EDIT: I'm not sure I'd include Descartes in that group, though, if you're referring to his arguments about the existence of self and the reality of the external world. I tend to think that those fall into the class of questions that cannot be resolved by empirical means, but that's rather tangential to the main point of our discussion.
I'm gonna have to call you on another straw man, because what I said was in fact quite clearly that:
"To me, good philosophers are those who really accomplish something, and sadly they are not always counted as philosophers. I speak of thinkers like Einstein, Newton, Darwin etc."
And no, I'm not gonna refrain from calling you on logical fallacies. Play by the rules, please. And by that I mean, read the entire post.
I did read your entire post, and I fail to see the relevance here. You did say clearly that Darwin and Einstein are not generally regarded as philosophers, but you also called them your favorites, which suggests pretty clearly that, in Thomas-land, they do in fact fall into that category. So can you please enlighten me as to why my arguments as to why they should
not be so regarded are irrelevant, or whatever it is you think they are?
And, for the third time, can you please explain what "waste of time" means, if not "lacking in value"? Your last post said
why you think some philosophy is a "waste of time," but since you appeared to suggest (based on my best interpretation of words you have yet to clarify) in your discussion of the rationalist/empiricist distinction that being a "waste of time" does not necessarily mean that rationalist philosophy is devoid of merit, I'm more than a little confused as to what it
does mean.
Edit, again:
And no, I'm not gonna refrain from calling you on logical fallacies.
Miscomprehending (again, charitably assuming that that's actually what I'm doing) your vague arguments, particularly when you steadfastly refuse my requests to clarify them, is not a logical fallacy.