1. Procreation may occur as a result of sexual conduct between two persons.
Irrelevant. We're talking about marriage. Procreation is a non-sequitor, for reasons others have mentioned earlier in this thread.
2. The possibility of procreation creates a situation where the two parties engaging in sexual intercourse require legal protection against each other, in order to coerce a reluctant partner to keep promises he or she made, which promises were made as a condition for consent to engage in sexual intercourse.
Equally applicable to homosexual couples where children are involved. I know several homosexual couples who have children as the results or previous marriages with the opposite sex, or from adoption. Are not they entiled to the same protection?
3. To facilitate those sorts of agreements and enable those legal protections, it is in the interest of the state to create a standard legal agreement between two people that protects those interests.
Equally applicable to homosexual couples.
4. Eligibility rules for that agreement need to be established such that all potentially procreative couples may enter into that standard agreement.
Sure, if you like. Homosexual couples included.
5. No harm is done if non-procreative couples are allowed to enter into the standard agreement, but no state interest is served by allowing them to do so.
How wrong you are. If people are unable to inherit the property of their partners, and unable to file jointly for taxes, unable to have comunal property and unable to share spousal privilage, I would dare say that is a detriment to society. By no sound logic can you say only breeding couples are entitled to these benefits.
6. The common law definition of marriage, as being between a man and a woman, serves those purposes by allowing all potentially procreative couples to enter into the state defined standard agreement.
It also allows infertile people of all sorts, including the elderly and those with reproductive problems to marry. We're been over this. We already extend marriage benefits to people unable to breed. Why are homosexual couples any different?
7. No change in eligibility requirements should be made unless the change is necessary to include a potentially procreative couple . Doing so would suggest that the state has an interest in regulating sexual behavior of people, as opposed to their procreative tendencies.
I'm going to use small words, so you understand: When the state stops any two people from getting hitched, the state is interfering with the liberties of those people. The state is not harmed by allowing two people of the same sex to get married. Ergo, the state is already "suggesting that the state has an interest in regulating the sexual behavior of people".
8. Therefore, addition of same sex couples into marriage agreements serves the interests of neither the state, nor the individuals. It suggests that the state should regulate sexual behavior independent of its ability to create children.
Here are ways same sex marriages serve the state and the individuals:
*Joint taxes and comunal property.
*Ability to visit one's loved one in the hosptial. (Many hosptials allow only family to visit. Many such hosptials refuse to recognize same sex unions in that regard)
*More homes for children are avilable, since it's hard to raise children when the state refuses to recognize you are married. It makes many tax exempt expenses difficult to file for, and many States refuse to allow people in same sex unions to adpot or foster children. Extending marriage rights and privilages to them would give homes to many more children. Are you in favor of denying needy children homes?
And so on and on, as many people have already posted in this thread.
Meadmaker, your procreation arguement is at best a non-sequitor, and at worst a smokescreen to hide your irrational bigotry.