Flo
Illuminator
Mentioning a person's religion where a single crime has been committed generally is pointless, unless religion is somehow a motivating factor in the crime.
First you have to establish it actually is a motivating factor, which hasn't ever been done.
But when one particular crime or type of crime is being committed throughout the country, and the vast majority of those crimes are being committed by people from one single religion, then it's clear there is some relationship between the crimes and the religion.
Good, then serial children and sex-murders are due to catholicism, then, since almost every single such crimes in France and Belgium have been committed by catholics (Fourniret, Heaulmes, Dutroux, ...). See the problem ?
Don't misunderstand, as Orwell has, that I'm saying they are rioting because they are Muslims. I don't know what their supposed grievances are. But the fact is that most of these rioters are Muslims, and it does no one any service to hush up that inconvenient fact.
And it does no one any service to suggest that correlation might be causation
France has had riots before. In August, 1572, saw a particularly memorable, protracted, and enjoyable one that the history books have taken note of. You can't read any of those histories without having the rioters' religion play a prominent role. Why is today different?
you're pulling my leg, right ? As I said, I don't know why they are rioting. It could be because of job discrimination or housing discrimination or because the weather is nice for rioting or Muslims have a gene that predisposes them to violence or because it is part of a plot hatched in Mecca to Islamize all of Europe. I don't know. I do know that it's a question Reuters should be asking. After all, they're in the business of information gathering and dissemination.
Then stop the wild speculations ...
