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The relationship between science and materialism

In this thread, on this board, to people who haven't accepted a problem with physicalism?

No.

Here we go again - I know for a fact that at least two contributors to this thread have "problems with physicalism" (excluding myself).

However the fact that it requires someone to see a problem with something unrelated to your metaphysical system before they can understand your metaphysical system would suggest that yours is not a self-sufficient system.

To a bunch of philosophy undergraduates?

Yes, easily - because they have a whole vocabulary which I cannot use here.

I am now totally utterly confused - you are now saying you can't express your metaphysical system here in a way people in this thread can understand so why do you get so angry and frustrated when people don't understand your metaphysical system? If it is as you say (i.e. you can't explain it here) how can you expect people to understand it? That just isn't rational.
 
OK,

At this point the lunacy stops. Kevin Lowe directly contradicted himself in the space of one post, as predicted. Several people then responded by claiming they understood philosophy much better than I did and that it was OK to contradict yourself in the space of three sentences. At this point, there is nothing more for me to say. All I can do is demonstrate that somebody cannot defend a position without introducing a contradiction. I never did see a clearer example of a contradiction to that one.

So, please continue to profess that you understand your own positions and that Kevin's self-contradictory statements are a result of Geoff's poor knowledge of philosophy, and I will allow the lurkers reading this thread to decide for themselves who won that argument and who lost it.

:)

Geoff
 
It's not your knowledge of philosophy I challenged, but rather your parsing of his sentence. That's all. You misread.
 
I shall now withdraw from this thread once more until and unless somebody posts something new/interesting.
 
So, please continue to profess that you understand your own positions and that Kevin's self-contradictory statements are a result of Geoff's poor knowledge of philosophy, and I will allow the lurkers reading this thread to decide for themselves who won that argument and who lost it.

Get over yourself. How sophomoric do you have to be in order to really care about who "won" the thread? Classic troll behavior..or perhaps this is more appropriate:

crybaby3ki.jpg


(Work of the US gov't, public domain)
 
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OK,

At this point the lunacy stops. Kevin Lowe directly contradicted himself in the space of one post, as predicted. Several people then responded by claiming they understood philosophy much better than I did and that it was OK to contradict yourself in the space of three sentences. At this point, there is nothing more for me to say. All I can do is demonstrate that somebody cannot defend a position without introducing a contradiction. I never did see a clearer example of a contradiction to that one.

If you are admitting you have no proof for your position that stands on its own that's a small amount of progress.

Take your small, entirely imaginary victory and leave.

So, please continue to profess that you understand your own positions and that Kevin's self-contradictory statements are a result of my own poor knowledge of philosophy, and I will allow the lurkers reading this thread to decide for themselves who won that argument and who lost it.

You are defending the claim that physical minds cannot exist. You cannot prove that claim by demolishing alternative positions. You cannot prove that claim by discrediting other posters. You need to prove the damn claim, with a proof that stands on its own merits.

If you leave at this point you will have failed to do this.
 
It's not your knowledge of philosophy I challenged, but rather your parsing of his sentence. That's all. You misread.

Nope, I didn't misread anything.

Here's what happened:

Definition : Geoff-mind refers to the totality of experience.

Definition ACCEPTED by Kevin. OK? So this definition is now no longer conditional, no matter how badly you want and need it to be conditional

Then he posts : Well, if in straw-land you are equating "Geoff-mind" and "what we experience"..

If you think there isn't a direct contradiction there, you are blind. No knowledge of philosophy or linguistics is required to spot the contradiction. To fail to notice it is like not being able to find an elephant which has been cunningly concealed in a handbag. :)
 
I shall now withdraw from this thread once more until and unless somebody posts something new/interesting.

Since we have now established that there are at least two people who seem to meet (your) required standard of education for being able to understand your definition of what you mean by "infinity" in your metaphysical system will you now please explain it (using whatever vocabulary you need to)?
 
The problem is being caused by the refusal to allow a definition of mind which clearly demarcates it from the physical level. I cannot refuse this definition, even though it assumes physicalism is true. All I can do is demonstrate that it leaves Kevin going round in an endless loop of using words to refer to minds, then defining those new things to be physical, and then having to invent more new terms to refer to minds. He will go around this loop forever, unless he allows a definition of mind as non-physical, or stops trying to refer to subjective experiences at all.

And this paragraph proves, beyond doubt, what the real problem is: you are starting with the assumption of subjective experiences being non-physical. That's why this problem exists.

In other words, you INSIST the dualist mind (or possibly immaterial mind) exists, and therefore absolutely no philosophy that denies this is acceptable to you.

The problem is yours, Geoff, not ours.
 
Get over yourself. How sophomoric do you have to be in order to really care about who "won" the thread? Classic troll behavior..or perhaps this is more appropriate:

[qimg]http://www.ehponline.org/docs/2005/113-2/crybaby.jpg[/qimg]

(Work of the US gov't, public domain)


Contentless flame. :)
 
Posted by Kevin Lowe

Take your small, entirely imaginary victory and leave.

This thread has now reached the point where the materialists have lost the argument and as a result they are attempting to turn the thread into a flame war. As such, I must withdraw from it. I will allow the reactions of the various people who want to defend physicalism to speak for themselves. If anyone wants me to reply to more questions concerning the contents of this thread, please send me a private message.

Geoff
 
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Nope, I didn't misread anything.

Here's what happened:

Definition : Geoff-mind refers to the totality of experience.

Definition ACCEPTED by Kevin. OK? So this definition is now no longer conditional, no matter how badly you want and need it to be conditional

Then he posts : Well, if in straw-land you are equating "Geoff-mind" and "what we experience"..

If you think there isn't a direct contradiction there, you are blind

Just to make it clear that Geoff is raving here, at that point in the discussion there were three terms floating around. Geoff stated, and I agreed provisionally, that Geoff-mind = "totality of subjective experiences".

Then later Geoff stated that Geoff-mind also equated to "what we experience". Now being well aware that Geoff is a total weasel, I thought it perfectly likely that he would try to make hay out of the difference between "what we experience" and "totality of subjective experiences".

"What we experience", after all, could equally well refer to external events which we experience, whereas "totality of subjective experiences" has that important word "subjective" in there.

So I qualified my acceptance of the claim that Geoff-mind equalled "What we experience" equalled "totality of subjective experiences", because I strongly suspected that if I did not make that qualification his next move would be to play on the ambiguity between his two definitions of Geoff-mind.

Thwarted in that approach, Geoff decided instead to pretend that by not wholeheartedly accepting the claim that Geoff-mind equalled "What we experience" equalled "totality of subjective experiences" I was being inconsistent. :rolleyes:

You can't win, but you can be amused by the new ways he plays the game.
 
Gentle Readers, I think you can judge for yourself.

Geoff clearly cannot argue without redefining at least one term to refer to an immaterial thing. 'What we experience' is not necessarily immaterial, as he seems to be insisting it is. 'Subjective experience' is not necessarily immaterial. 'Mind' is not necessarily immaterial.

Clearly, he lacks a basic understanding of what eliminative materialists are trying to say, simply because he has a locked-in predisposition to assume that at least some part of the subjective experience cannot be physical. No matter how far we delve into the actual situation of 'mind' he will continue to retreat further. He has even gone so far as to invoke 'qualia' indirectly - something which is, itself, unproven.

Simply put - the folk psychology understanding of 'mind' is of an immaterial experience happening within (or supervening upon) a physical brain. The eliminative materialist is not denying subjective experiences; they are only denying that these subjective experiences are, in any way, immaterial. This is what it means to 'deny the existence of mind as understood in folk psychology'.

The ONLY way for Geoff to prove the absurdity of eliminative materialism, then, is to prove that the immaterial exists at all - which neither he nor anyone else can do.

THAT, then, is the point - Geoff cannot make his point, and cannot defend his position. So for the third??? time, he is 'withdrawing'...

:rolleyes:
 
Oh BOY!

He's gone round the loop AGAIN!

Everyone watching?

What we experience", after all, could equally well refer to external events which we experience, whereas "totality of subjective experiences" has that important word "subjective" in there

We now have a new difference between "what we experience" and "the totality of subjective experiences". "What we experience" has now joined the list of five previous terms in being subsumed into the physical. And what has popped up to take it's place?: "The totality of subjective experiences"

Now, if I ask him to define : "totality of subjective experiences", what do you think he will say?

This was in fact predicted by me on the previous page. I said he'd end up going round the loop again and ending up here:

What we experience(2)(*MINDS*) is what we experience(1)(now:brain), which is a Geoff-mind(now:brain), inside a Kevin-mind(now:brain) inside a brain."

:dl:

No more. I cannot take any more.
 
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Jeff since you aren't leaving the thread could you please answer the following:

Since we have now established that there are at least two people who seem to meet (your) required standard of education for being able to understand your definition of what you mean by "infinity" in your metaphysical system will you now please explain it (using whatever vocabulary you need to)?
 
Does it count as not posting any more, if you go back and edit new content into your old posts in response to later posts?

Because Geoff just edited post #1612 at 12:17, after posts by three other people.

He just can't let go, can he?

ETA: By the time I posted this he'd struck again. Comedy gold.
 
How can one determine the characteristics/properties of essential being? Can essential being (aside from existence) have any characteristics that contingent beings possess or must its properties be different from contingent beings? Can we speak sensibly of essential being?
 
I'd tend to say that "quality" is typically a term used for question-begging. People define "quality" to mean something which cannot be purely physical, although they tend to hide it behind a layer or three of foofle.

"Quality" = something = something else = something that cannot be physical.

I don't think we have "qualia" so much as "sense data". You can't hive off "redness" from degree of redness, size of redness, brightness of redness and so on with the stroke of a pen, and that's what I think the qualia brigade tend to do.

I think you have identified the nub of the materialist vs phenomenalist debate. I assert that any particular quality doesn't need these various relational parameters you mention, whereas you disagree. Are you right in saying we can't just hive off size, brightness and degree from redness? I don't think so. I think you are mistaken for attaching these relational definitions and attempting to define redness as such in the first place. They simply have no bearing on the qualitative nature of redness to begin with.

You might say, "colour is determined by a particular wavelength of light emitted from the object and this refers to the degree and brightness of redness". But here, we are dealing with mathematical relationships in our definition of brightness and degree. In other words, we can give a full account of a particular wavelength, polarisation and amplitude of light and have no reason to refer to anything else. "..of redness" doesn't come into it. I think this inevitably leads us into the knowledge argument with Mary in the black and white room etc, an argument I find quite valid.

Probably, but it might turn out you could define it at a physical level as well. It might turn out that the experience of seeing redness happens to be a particular brain state which is objectively observable, and that I could induce the state of seeing redness by zapping a particular bit of a person's brain with an electrode, even if they had never seen red.

The same argument applies here with regards to physical descriptions being mathematical whereas redness is not. I think you are trying to explain this by saying that the description of brain processes is from the "outside" whereas the actual brain processes themselves are on the "inside" and equal the experience of redness, and hence this is why we can never fully describe the "inside" experience because that would mean actually being on the inside and thus losing the objectively observable brain processes on the outside. Bit of a long-winded sentence but is that what you're roughly saying? If so you are confronted with the following problem:

a) we have a description of objectively observable brain processes and the actual brain processes themselves the latter of which equals redness.

b) we have a description of objectively observable brain processes and the actual brain processes themselves, the latter of which does not equal redness.

I'll assume you regard a) and b) as being simultaneously possible. It is clearly the addition of the term redness that distinguishes these two scenario's since a) includes redness in the statement whereas b) does not. How would you define redness here?

Also, you refer to someone "seeing redness" after zapping their brain. What do you mean by redness here?

I suspect you mean the same thing I do - the qualitative nature of an experience.
 

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