So, making up straw men and burning them down is "articulate and careful"?
Or perhaps I'm misunderstanding you here?
Perhaps there is a misunderstanding afoot here; I do feel that JamesDillon's posts are very well thought-out, and logical. His arguments are very sound, in that he's pointed out a very important and salient point of the issue at hand: The law,
and its interpretation, must be crafted with the best interests of society in mind, as well as keeping that interpretation to the narrowest possible reading of said law. Now, I'm not a lawyer, nor a law student, but it strikes me as logical and carefully thought out, to take this into consideration before labelling something as "slavery". Your argument of drawing a parallel between a mother being forced into some sort of biological slavery (even though, according to your American laws, she is still legally able and free to terminate the pregnancy) isn't necessarily apt or appropriate, since, if the hypothetical mother-to-be in question chose to bring the baby to term, the freedom to choose is an available option. Once the mother decides to follow through with the gestation, (and, from a legal perspective, after a certain number of weeks) she is now legally responsible to carry it to term with no malice or ill-intent (e.g., deliberately hurting herself in order to terminate the pregnancy). Now, one could make an argument that if her decision was made under duress, I suppose, if, say, her family's religious beliefs or the father's wish to keep it, these should be interpreted as mitigating factors in her decision. But, the law, to my understanding, doesn't take those factors into account; a woman's body is her own, and if said woman decides to keep the baby, then *it is her decision*. Those that are trapped in the bonds of slavery do not have the freedom to choose; that is the very definition of someone subjected to slavery (Slavery, in this reading, not limited to African-Americans, naturally; sweatshops could be considered modern-day plantations... maybe? Another thread for this discussion, perhaps. But, I digress.)
Having said that, as a parent, you are
legally obligated to act in the best interests of the child; this does NOT make you a slave, right? So, why is one interpretation (the mother carrying the baby to term) totally acceptable and relevant, but the other (once the baby is born, the parents have a legal right to take care of it) not applicable?
Again, to reiterate, I am not a lawyer, but your argument, especially in light of JamesDillon's very convincing and logical points, just doesn't make sense to me.