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Merged Arday life and death

Yes, the damage this does to honest black academics must be immense. Are they actually smart and did the work or are they a diversity token?
I can make the leap to a degree. I'm in a pretty heavily male-dominated field, and especially early in my career, I ended up being acutely aware that when another female made a mistake or excercised poor judgement at work, it reflected on all of us. It made my own mistakes feel devestating. And it was fairly observable that males didn't face quite the same scrutiny.

Which has always struck me as a really screwy view when it comes to my field. All of the exams to become an associate are completely blind, and the only fellowship course that isn't blind is the final presentation. Throughout the entire rest of the process, the people doing the grading have no idea whose work they're grading - it's just a number on a page, and a set of guidelines for scoring. And it's two graders, both of whom must already be fellows, and both of whom come up with their scoring independently. If the scoring they gave on any problem wasn't within a certain range, they would discuss the answer and make their cases, and come to a consensus on what the score could be.

It was impossible for my sex to have impacted my qualifications. 🤷‍♀️
 
Kathleen Stock's piece is self-deluded rubbish. As if anyone really gives a toss as to whether Arday ran 300 miles or 200 miles or whatever. Being a runner he almost certainly did get shin splints - that's hardly being 'a fabulist'. You don't know what his childhood conditions were. It's not uncommon to have both autism AND epilepsy.

Please read Will Self, in which he nominates Kathleen Stock for one of his "j'accuse'.

:LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL:

"How dare they talk about someone black and make us have to make it all about racism. And besides, she's a TERF, and even worse, she's white!"
 
There are plenty of mediocrities who get in by pure dint of generational wealth. For example, priority is given to attend Eton - and other top public schools - to kids whose parents were alma mater. Sure, they give scholarships but to get one, you have to pass the entry exams of which the material is geared towards those primed at the right prep schools. Nathan Cofnas' backer, Toby Young, who runs a 'Free Speech' group, failed to achieve the A-Level grades required for Oxford but got in thanks to his dad, who was a Peer and who applied pressure on Oxford to take him.

There is nothing unmerited in Arday's achievements.
"Some other person got in on personal privilege, therefore Ardays were completely merited"?
 
Set theory is maths, or at least that's where I learned it. Even https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/set-theory/ calls it a mathematical theory right in the first sentence. Decidability is computer science, which again is maths. Ditto for recursion theory. Even when I've heard them referred to as logic, it was invariably qualified as mathematical logic.

Insisting on filing them under philosophy seems about ass-backward to me as if someone tried to shoehorn GR into philosophy, because Aristotle also wrote about objects falling :P
 
Set theory is maths, or at least that's where I learned it. Even https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/set-theory/ calls it a mathematical theory right in the first sentence. Decidability is computer science, which again is maths. Ditto for recursion theory. Even when I've heard them referred to as logic, it was invariably qualified as mathematical logic.

Insisting on filing them under philosophy seems about ass-backward to me as if someone tried to shoehorn GR into philosophy, because Aristotle also wrote about objects falling :P
I look forward to reading your analysis of the Normal Moore space conjecture.
 
Elizabeth Holmes, Theranos.
Jeez what a horrible person. I remember hearing about that. I also remember being pretty irritated about the fraud involved. I will say there's some difference in that Holmes' lack of ethics doesn't reflect poorly on the very intuitional system that backed her initial credibility. It reflects poorly on the influence of family and the ability to leverage their reputations and accomplishments, and it reflects poorly on venture capital.
 
Well, let me explain in simple terms what I'm doing with probabilities there. You know how people commonly say "that's probably true"? Well, in binary logic that "probably" is either 0% or 100%. There is no such thing as a half-true proposition. If I say that my cat is female, that's 100% true. If I say that my cat is male, that's 0% true. If I say all cats are female, that's also 0% true, aka, false. I'm not talking about "what's the probability that a mackerel tabby cat is female?"

I'm simply mapping "true" to "1.0" and "false" to "0.0". Then you can use the same maths that works for other probabilities, and get binary logic. By using maths not philosophy.

Granted, that's taking the harder way, but just to illustrate a point: we're already perfectly able to prove logic by just maths. Same as we no longer have to go to philosophy to figure out how fast an apple falls.
Oh, yeah, I get that. I even remember learning the concept - one of my classes went through how a whole lot of defined probability formulas are related to each other. Like when when specific parameters are constants, the entirely formula simplifies to another defined formula, especially when one of those parameters is 0. There was a bit in there about using probability formulas as the arguments in more standard math. I barely remember it, it was a very long time ago and I haven't used it since.

Still beyond my current scope. School was a very long time ago, and I don't actually use that stuff in my career. Reasonable use of moderate statistics, sometimes sampling stats, once in a long while some calculus. I think I did an integral once.
 
Not entirely sure where are you going with that.
No surprise there.

I'm pretty sure that topology isn't a part of philosophy, but of maths.
Topology is definitely a branch of mathematics. As with several other branches of mathematics, mathematicians and philosophers were quite surprised to discover how deeply topology was intertwined with logic.

Many people who know nothing about logic (and it's fair to count you among them) believe every mathematical question has an answer that's either true or false.

The normal Moore space conjecture is just one of the many mathematical questions whose answer depends upon the set-theoretic axioms you choose to assume. The consequences of those axioms are a matter of pure logic, and the choice of axioms is the sort of things philosophers have been arguing about for more than a century now. And the philosophers who argue about that sort of thing generally call themselves logicians.

For your next trick, I hope you'll give us your take on non-standard models of arithmetic. The first sentence of that Wikipedia article begins with the words "In mathematical logic". As the article goes on to explain, whether non-standard models exist at all depends not only on the axioms you choose to assume, but on the logic you choose to assume.
 
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You don't know what you're talking about.
Oh, no, I'm not impugning logic as a whole! I value formal logic quite a bit, and it has a foundational role in science as an entire field!

No, I'm merely making fun of "intuitional logic" and the description of it. Because it really seems to be begging the question.
 
Whether or not there is a fact of the matter is irrelevant if there's no way to test and demonstrate whether it is or is not a fact in the first place.
Yes, but history and archeology often DO have ways of testing or demonstrating, by finding evidence, sometimes literally digging it out of the ground or learning an extinct language or looking through archives, etc...
Again, there is value and use in soft sciences. But there is a meaningful difference between them and hard sciences that is almost entirely due to scientific method, falsifiability, and replicability of the proposed theory. Two things can be different, without one being superior or inferior to the other - you know that right?
And you are making non sequitur arguments. I am not claiming that the existence of a difference of methodologies constitute a difference between inferior and superior disciplines. I am simply disagreeing with your characterization, largely inherited from other posters here such as smartcooky and Hans which you have run with, that the difference between the hard sciences and soft sciences are that the former are testable and demonstrable, and the latter are not. That is far too sweeping and quite obviously false.

It has been pointed out to you that many things in history, philosophy and archeology ARE testable and are demonstrable, but in some cases, they simply haven't been yet, but may still be. This is not exactly very different, except by degree, from many of the hard sciences such as physics, where we can ask questions which we may never have ways of testing or demonstrating whether something is or is not a fact.
In what way do you think I'm doing this? Because I very strongly believe I am absolutely NOT doing that. I despise moral relativism as a philosophy. It's a destructive and self-serving view of society.
Moral relativism is not the only relativism. There is also epistemic relativism, and what you say here smacks of it: "whether you like it or not, current beliefs and feelings absolutely do influence the interpretation of historical events." I am not sure what you mean by "like it or not". What you are saying is either trivially true, which is that there can be an objective truth that looks different depending on who and where we look at it from, which is not something I am disputing. I agree with it, but that doesn't diminish my point.

OR... you are denying any inherent truth about it and saying that the various differing perspectives negate the possibility of objectivity. If you are saying that, then you are being an epistemic relativist.
 
Topology is definitely a branch of mathematics. As with several other branches of mathematics, mathematicians and philosophers were quite surprised to discover how deeply topology was intertwined with logic.

Many people who know nothing about logic (and it's fair to count you among them) believe every mathematical question has an answer that's either true or false.
Okay - once again I really don't know specifically what either of you are talking about, but I'm enjoying the discussion anyway.

That said, I don't get why you two seem to be arguing about this? Math is logic. The entire premise of math is logic. Isn't it? Proofs are literally applied logic, aren't they?

And of course logic is philosophy. At some point, if you dig far enough, everything is philosophy of some sort or another. Eventually we run out of things we know and can prove, and we enter the realm of trying to identify and explain a pattern of kind. I mean, that's boiling it up a lot, it's like saying "at some point everything is some sort of fundamental particle, yeah?"
 
Jeez what a horrible person. I remember hearing about that. I also remember being pretty irritated about the fraud involved. I will say there's some difference in that Holmes' lack of ethics doesn't reflect poorly on the very intuitional system that backed her initial credibility. It reflects poorly on the influence of family and the ability to leverage their reputations and accomplishments, and it reflects poorly on venture capital.
Harvard Medical School
 
Oh, no, I'm not impugning logic as a whole! I value formal logic quite a bit, and it has a foundational role in science as an entire field!

No, I'm merely making fun of "intuitional logic" and the description of it. Because it really seems to be begging the question.
It's intuitionistic logic. In intuitionistic logic, the law of excluded middle does not always hold, which is to say intuitionistic logic does away with the a priori assumption that sentences are either true or false (even within an interpretation). The formal semantics of intuitionistic logic can be stated using Heyting algebras instead of Boolean algebras; it is also possible to state the formal semantics using Kripke semantics, as for modal logics.

Some (but by no means all) of the practical applications of intuitionistic logic involve type checking of the sort that's involved when you compile a computer program. This is more important for programming languages with sophisticated type systems than for programming languages rooted in the 1950s and 1960s.
 
Okay - once again I really don't know specifically what either of you are talking about, but I'm enjoying the discussion anyway.

That said, I don't get why you two seem to be arguing about this? Math is logic. The entire premise of math is logic. Isn't it? Proofs are literally applied logic, aren't they?

And of course logic is philosophy. At some point, if you dig far enough, everything is philosophy of some sort or another. Eventually we run out of things we know and can prove, and we enter the realm of trying to identify and explain a pattern of kind. I mean, that's boiling it up a lot, it's like saying "at some point everything is some sort of fundamental particle, yeah?"
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Yes, but history and archeology often DO have ways of testing or demonstrating, by finding evidence, sometimes literally digging it out of the ground or learning an extinct language or looking through archives, etc...

And you are making non sequitur arguments. I am not claiming that the existence of a difference of methodologies constitute a difference between inferior and superior disciplines. I am simply disagreeing with your characterization, largely inherited from other posters here such as smartcooky and Hans which you have run with, that the difference between the hard sciences and soft sciences are that the former are testable and demonstrable, and the latter are not. That is far too sweeping and quite obviously false.
I'm pretty sure I'm the one that provided that definition. I could be wrong, I suppose. I don't imagine it's a novel definition.
It has been pointed out to you that many things in history, philosophy and archeology ARE testable and are demonstrable, but in some cases, they simply haven't been yet, but may still be. This is not exactly very different, except by degree, from many of the hard sciences such as physics, where we can ask questions which we may never have ways of testing or demonstrating whether something is or is not a fact.
And? Yes, of course some things are testable and demonstrable. I don't think I've said otherwise.

Here, let me try a different approach. As a generality, based on nothing but your own intuition and feelings about it... what percent of all areas of physics would you say is testable and demonstrable? What percentage of all the areas of philosophy would you say is testable and demonstrable? Would you consider those intuitive percentages to be close together?
Moral relativism is not the only relativism. There is also epistemic relativism, and what you say here smacks of it: "whether you like it or not, current beliefs and feelings absolutely do influence the interpretation of historical events." I am not sure what you mean by "like it or not". What you are saying is either trivially true, which is that there can be an objective truth that looks different depending on who and where we look at it from, which is not something I am disputing. I agree with it, but that doesn't diminish my point.

OR... you are denying any inherent truth about it and saying that the various differing perspectives negate the possibility of objectivity. If you are saying that, then you are being an epistemic relativist.
Okay.

I think it's trivially true. But I also have a strong impression that other people in this thread do NOT think it's trivially true.

This gets complicated for me to put into words. That's a me thing, so bear with me please.

A thing can be a thing, completely independent of any observer, or even any knowledge that the thing is a thing. An observer isn't necessary for a thing to be a thing. But if there isn't an observer, nobody knows that the thing is even a thing in the first place. We cannot know what we don't know exists.

That said, of course people can look at a thing from different perspectives, and draw different conclusions. Because most things look different when seen from different perspectives. I think that's trivially true too, isn't it?

But those perspectives don't make truth and falsehood relative. It makes them at best incomplete. The truth or falsehood of a thing is independent of the perspective from which it's viewed. But if there is only one way of looking at it, a false conclusion may be drawn, and if only one person looks at it and says "it's a blargedyflarg!" then nobody knows it's anything other than a blargedyflarg. The only way to determine whether it actually is or is not a blargedyflarg is to find a way to test it. If a way to test it - which necessitates a different perspective to at least some extent - finds that it is NOT a blargedyflarg, then it's been demonstrated to be false. If that test concludes it's a blargedyflarg, then other tests will be done, and will continue to be done, until we're confident that the likelihood of it actually being, in reality a blargedyflarg, is high enough to be accepted as true.

Our limited and sometimes wrong interpretation of things doesn't alter what they actually are. The objective world exists independent of observers.

All of which is now immensely esoteric, probably a bit sophomoric on my part, and a rather spectacular (but fun and interesting) diversion from the topic of the thread.
 
Anyway, I think we are way off track.

It makes no sense to dismiss history and philosophy etc... specifically within the context of The University of Cambridge, which was the place where Bertrand Russell, Ludwig Wittgenstein and Alan Turing all did philosophical work which had huge implications for maths and computing and much else.

If you dismiss it as Mickey Mouse stuff then Cambridge has always been Mickey Mouse and Jason Arday would have fit right in.
 

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