Transwomen are not Women - Part 15

I don't see what is so difficult about this. If all men are excluded, then all men are treated equally, therefore no men are disadvantaged.

If some men are allowed in and others are excluded, the men who are excluded are put at a disadvantage compared to the men who are allowed in.
 
I don't see what is so difficult about this.
Mostly it's that you haven't pointed to a specific portion of the ruling or the law. Until this happens, I'm going to assume this is mostly wishcasting a preferred outcome on to the situation.
If some men are allowed in and others are excluded, the men who are excluded are put at a disadvantage compared to the men who are allowed in.
Feminists generally don't mind comparing the sexes to each other in terms of relative advantages, so it's weird that you've scrupulously avoided doing so here. In the scenario where "all men are excluded" from the women's pond, they are at a disadvantage relative to the users who have access to that pond.
 
Last edited:
Are you being intentionally obtuse? Sex segregation is permitted under the EA if it is done as a proportionate means of achieving a legitimate objective. Having single-sex swimming pools is recognised as a legitimate objective, therefore excluding men from the women's pool (and vice versa) is permitted discrimination.

That is what the EA is about. About the circumstances where it is permissible to discriminate. You can discriminate against all men in order to provide a female-only pool. That is allowed. However you cannot then decide to admit some men and not others, because you are then discriminating against the men you aren't allowing in. That is not allowed.

I'm not explaining my preferences to you, I am explaining the law. Single-sex provisions are allowed. But as soon as one person of the other sex is allowed in the provision is no longer single-sex and it is discriminatory to keep any other people of the other sex out.

Here is the judgment in full. Read it for yourself.

 
Last edited:
Mostly it's that you haven't pointed to a specific portion of the ruling or the law. Until this happens, I'm going to assume this is mostly wishcasting a preferred outcome on to the situation.

Feminists generally don't mind comparing the sexes to each other in terms of relative advantages, so it's weird that you've scrupulously avoided doing so here. In the scenario where "all men are excluded" from the women's pond, they are at a disadvantage relative to the users who have access to that pond.
Are you messing with us?

If there are facilities where being separated on the basis of sex is reasonable and appropriate, then they can be separated on the basis of sex - but in doing so, they must adhere to sex as a biological reality. They cannot make exceptions for some people of the opposite sex.

In this situation, there are two ponds: One is a pond for males and the other is a pond for females. They've historically been separated by sex. Over the past several years, the management has made exceptions, and have allowed some males to use the female pond, provided those males said they had a special gender essence in their minds.

The recent SC ruling made it clear that they cannot make exceptions of that sort.

When it comes to toilets, changing rooms, showers, etc. it's pretty clear. If it's a single use facility that doesn't have any shared spaces, it can be designated unisex, no problem. So if a small restaurant only has two completely enclosed restrooms, they can both be designated unisex. But they can't make one of them for males and the other one "gender neutral" or anything like that - if one is set aside for one sex, there must be a facility for the other sex, and they have to enforce that sex designation.

In this particular case I end up on the fence. They're swimming ponds that have historically been separated by sex, so there's tradition there. On the other hand, most ponds, pools, lakes, etc. aren't separated by sex. As I understand it, neither of these ponds allows nudity. So I think there's a plausible argument to be made that both ponds should be available to both sexes.
 
The recent SC ruling made it clear that they cannot make exceptions of that sort.
I am skeptical of this claim.
Are you messing with us?
Not at the moment. The ruling makes it clear that "provisions...directed at maintaining the availability of separate or single spaces or services for women (or men) as a group – for example changing rooms, homeless hostels, segregated swimming areas" are legally acceptable under the EA 2010. That does not logically or legally imply that it is illegal for municipalities to offer swimming areas based on other criteria, such as self-i.d.
The recent SC ruling made it clear that they cannot make exceptions of that sort.
Where?
 
Last edited:
In this particular case I end up on the fence. They're swimming ponds that have historically been separated by sex, so there's tradition there. On the other hand, most ponds, pools, lakes, etc. aren't separated by sex. As I understand it, neither of these ponds allows nudity. So I think there's a plausible argument to be made that both ponds should be available to both sexes.

There is also a mixed pond. Having one pond for females, one for males and one for anyone who wants to be there gives a place for everyone. Making all three ponds mixed excludes everyone who doesn't want to swim with people of the opposite sex. This includes people of certain religious groups.

You're wrong about nudity not being permitted. I understand it's common for women to go topless, at least to sunbathe topless, in the women's pond, and the showers and changing facilities are communal and involve full nudity.
 
No, it did not.

Not at all. The ruling makes it clear that "provisions...directed at maintaining the availability of separate or single spaces or services for women (or men) as a group – for example changing rooms, homeless hostels, segregated swimming areas" are legally acceptable under the EA 2010. That does not logically or legally imply that it is illegal for municipalities to offer swimming areas based on other criteria, such as self-i.d.
IIRC, it actually does make it illegal to allow that criteria to be on the basis of gender identity in opposition to sex. I'm sure Rolfe or Elaedith will be able to provide the actual language that goes into this - we've discussed it before.
 
No, it did not.

Not at all. The ruling makes it clear that "provisions...directed at maintaining the availability of separate or single spaces or services for women (or men) as a group – for example changing rooms, homeless hostels, segregated swimming areas" are legally acceptable under the EA 2010. That does not logically or legally imply that it is illegal for municipalities to offer swimming areas based on other criteria, such as self-i.d.

Yes, it does. I went through the entire thing and posted the relevant passages earlier in the thread. It is absolutely a breach of the EA to discriminate against one group of men (or women) in favour of another group of men (or women). We worked through all this in minute detail last April. Go back and read it if you don't remember.

There is a very specific way this works in that you can add protected characteristics, but you can't mix them. So you can have a group for women only. You can then specify that this is for young (or old) women only. You can then add that it is only for women of a particular religion. And so on. But you cannot mix the categories. You can't add in some old men at the point where you specify that the group is for old women, for example.

As far as gender reassignment goes, you can have a group which is only for people who have undergone gender reassignment. You can then say it is only for female people (or male people) who have undergone gender reassignment. But you can't have a group that is for female people and male people who have undergone gender reassignment, because that is mixing the groups. Honestly, go back six months and read it.

I remain skeptical of this claim, but I'm happy to read whichever part of the decision backs it up.

You can be as sceptical as you like, but it's the reality. Read the bloody judgment. I read it several times, I extracted the relevant passages, and I'm not doing it again just because some people in this thread have short attention spans.
 
Last edited:
I'll try again. You can say, female people only. But as regards gender reassignment, the only modification you can make is to say that the group is for female people who have undergone gender reassignment (so, a group for "transmen"). You can't add male people at that point, because you already excluded them with your first criterion.

You can say, people who have undergone gender reassignment. But then, the only modification you can make is to restrict it to one or the other sex that has undergone gender reassignment. You can't add in people who haven't undergone gender reassignment, because you already excluded them with your first criterion.

You can have a group for elderly Jewish women. Because age and sex and religion are all PCs. But you can't at a later stage go back and admit people who were excluded by one criterion just because they fulful another criterion.

There is literally no legal way under the EA to have a group that is "women and some men, but not other men". It has to be either women-only or everyone.

The EHRC guidance is easier to search, but I assure you it merely reflects what's in the judgment.


1759795850147.png
 
Last edited:
Honestly, links or it didn't happen.

Just tell me what pages to (re)read.

Read it. Or go back to April and read the discussion from then. Or go to bed like sensible people should be doing anyway.

I relented and dug out the bit from the EHRC guidance. Can it be any clearer?

1759795966563.png
 
I was thinking about associations. You can say this hillwalking group is for women only. You can then say it is for lesbian women only. But you can't at that point add in some men, because you'd have to add all men back in. So you could have a hillwalking group for lesbian women and gay men only, because everyone in the group has the same protected characteristic, same-sex attraction. But you couldn't have one for lesbian women and men who have undergone gender reassignment. EVERYBODY IN THE GROUP MUST HAVE ALL OF THE PROTECTED CHARACTERISTICS IN QUESTION.

In the case of these ponds, they're trying to mix the groups, that is have groups where some people don't have both/all the protected characteristics, and that is not lawful. The trans-identifying men do not have the PC of being female and the women do not have the PC of gender reassignment. That's not lawful.
 
Where does it say in the ruling (or the EA) that individual communities cannot choose to provide mixed-sex provisions based on cisgender/transgender status? I don't recall seeing that anywhere.
I know you're trying to play the role of contrarian devil's advocate here, but how many times do you need telling that the April 16, 2025 Supreme Court ruling EXPLICITLY rules that out. It's the law.
 
Can it be any clearer?
I was asking what happens when a municipality decides to provide something other than single sex services, e.g. mixed-sex based on gender i.d.

Your excerpt is not responsive to my question.
 
Last edited:
As many times as it takes to quote something on point.
What part of "trans women (biological men) should not be permitted to use the women’s facilities and trans men (biological women) should not be permitted to use the men’s facilities, as this will mean that they are no longer single-sex facilities and must be open to all users of the opposite sex" eludes you?
 
Once again, I didn't ask about single-sex facilities.

I asked whether municipalities are allowed to have mixed-sex facilities based on other criteria.

ETA: Poor form putting non-quotes in quotes; seems like you are misrepresenting an unnamed source.
 
Please let me reframe the question once again, bearing in mind that it is not devil's advocacy but ordinary legal practice to address edge cases which might come up: Suppose a hypothetical British city wants to offer one pond for "anyone male at birth and also females with GRC" and another pond for "anyone female at birth and also males with GRC" open to anyone who meets those explicitly mixed-sex criteria.

Which part of the SC decision or the EA tells us whether this scenario would be allowed?
 

Back
Top Bottom