A proof that p-zombies are logically incoherent.

No, that's not right. We can still encode the information into the book. It's just that we need something to decode it with. We have been encoding sensations like "hot" and "rose-scented" into books for as long as there have been books, and we decode it with our imagination.

You're talking about a more direct and explicit encoding, I think, and that requires an encoding mechanism and a decoding mechanism, but we can indeed record the encoded data in a book.
The question is, can any old computer (suitably programmed) decode that data into a conscious experience, or can only biological brains do it?

Analogy: The data on a CD encodes sound waves, but a paper-tape Turing machine can't decode the data into the sound waves. A CD player and an amplifier and speakers are required.
 
The question is, can any old computer (suitably programmed) decode that data into a conscious experience, or can only biological brains do it?
Any sufficiently powerful computer can do it.

Analogy: The data on a CD encodes sound waves, but a paper-tape Turing machine can't decode the data into the sound waves. A CD player and an amplifier and speakers are required.
Uh, that's not analogous. You're confusing the informational process with the physical means we use. A Turing machine that can read the binary data directly has no need of a CD player or the other miscellany. It can proceed straight to the stage of aural perception.
 
What's the difference between conscious awareness and conscious experience in your model?
Tell me what those terms mean, and I'll tell you what the difference is in my model.
As I've said before, I'm not going to get into infinate regression here. I say consciousness, you say define it. I say awareness, you say define it. I say experience, you say define it. And on, and on, and on.

And bear in mind that I am specifically not wanting to influence you.

I'm wanting the atheist-materialist account of consciousness.

When I'm not unconscious or asleep I am aware of myself, my surroundings, thoughts, feelings and ideas. I don't see any difference between my being conscious of these things, aware of them or experiencing them.

Now I'm looking for your definition. I already know my own.

You agree that you're aware, right? Would it then be correct to say that the consciousness you believe exists in a cock-and-ball toilet cistern (in your model) is limited solely to just the awareness of the tank full/empty state and nothing more? What's the difference between awareness and experience as you would define those terms? That is to say, would you agree that the cisterns consciousness is limited to just the experience of the tank full/empty state?
_
HypnoPsi
 
Isn't this how psychopaths are supposed to operate - they merely ape other people's reactions to things so people don't know they have no emotions of their own?
 
But if this is so then given the behaviour (or brain processes), consciousness by definition is present. Thus it necessarily follows that p-zombies are necessarily logically incoherent.

Another way of putting this is that the logical possibility of p-zombies begs the question of materialism.

You see?

Yes, I do see, Ian. What I see also is your apparent co-opting of my favorite criticism of the p-zombie argument and turning it on its head.

Remember where p-zombies came from. The concept of p-zombies arose from neo-dualists like David Chalmers, one of the biggest proponents of the p-zombie argument. The whole point of p-zombies as a thought experiment is to demonstrate that materialism is false.

In order to demonstrate that materialism is false using p-zombies, the proponent must in fact begin with the given assumption that materialism is true. This is because the p-zombie argument made by dualists is a proof by contradiction. To prove an assumption is false by contradiction, you must begin with assuming it is true. Basic logic.

Thus, your observation that materialists demonstrating the logical impossibility of p-zombies are begging the question of materialism is trivial. Of course they are begging the question. So are dualists who try to assert that p-zombies refute materialism. They define p-zombies such that they are exactly like conscious humans, except for some indefinable, ineffable quality of consciousness that cannot be material; they beg the question of dualism being true. Materialists scoffing at p-zombies are merely pointing out that the p-zombie argument as a refutation of materialism is wearing no clothes. You have just co-opted some materialists' criticism of p-zombies as a refutation of materialism and turned it into a criticism of materialism. You win, Ian, because that really is interesting.

The p-zombie argument fails for the very reason Pixy gives, which is one I gave in so many words in my many exchanges with Win. P-zombies who behave in every respect as if they are conscious and who believe themselves to be conscious, are in fact conscious by any materialist definition of consciousness (that is how Win defined them, BTW, but he steadfastly denied that they were conscious; they just thought they were). Any other definition of consciousness must comprise some element of a non-material explanation for it (I note that Pixy remarks in this thread that his proof works regardless of whether materialism is true, but I'm not so sure; I think it depends on what we mean by "by definition"--I take it to be under any materialist definition).

Remember that Win was the biggest proponent of the p-zombie argument here, and its most dogged defender. Win presented it numerous times, with considerable patience, in an effort to demonstrate that qualia and experience cannot be accounted for by a materialistic explanation for consciousness. He did so as a "student" (admirer, as I do not believe Win actually studied under Chalmers himself) of Chalmers.

***********

This is not directed as you, Ian, but did anyone else think it was some sort of inside philosophy joke that a new poster named "Mary Dennett" entered this discussion? The reason I ask is because Daniel Dennett (author of Consciousness Explained and very much a materialist, and TAM4 speaker) is a well-known and respected philosopher and probably the most vocal opponent of David Chalmers and Chalmers' p-zombie argument. I thought it was hilarious that perhaps someone masquerading as his wife or daughter or other close relative might jump in here. Apparently, it's merely a coincidence.

AS
 
Or Mary Dennett was chosen to reflect Dennett's view, as well as the argument of Mary (who has never seen the color ****).
 
As I've said before, I'm not going to get into infinate regression here. I say consciousness, you say define it. I say awareness, you say define it. I say experience, you say define it. And on, and on, and on.


There is nothing wrong with asking someone to define an unclear term so that the conversation can continue on equal footing.

And bear in mind that I am specifically not wanting to influence you.

That is not true, or you wouldn't be in the conversation; you would merely lurk and observe. If you want to know what the western athiest materialist skeptic view is, start a new thread asking what it is. That way, the boundries of discussion are set, and everyone is aware of what the intended goal of the conversation is.

You agree that you're aware, right? Would it then be correct to say that the consciousness you believe exists in a cock-and-ball toilet cistern (in your model) is limited solely to just the awareness of the tank full/empty state and nothing more? What's the difference between awareness and experience as you would define those terms? That is to say, would you agree that the cisterns consciousness is limited to just the experience of the tank full/empty state?

You ask this, but you don't want to examine anyone else's system. You want to take their words and apply it to your system, so that you can ridicule. I know this not merely on faith - I have observed you doing it in previous posts, and you are performing the exact same mannerisms now.

If you wish to examine the terms and definitions of a particular group of people, start a new thread; otherwise, please don't bog down threads with unnecessary semantics.
 
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I WOULD agree that I am aware but the definition has become so muddled at this point that I have no idea what it even means any more. I have no idea if I am aware in terms of whatever you define it as.

Every single time you ask us what is and is not a term that is unclear, we are going to ask you to define it OR define it ourselves and go with that. If you take issue with our definition, you MUST provide your own.

This is all perfectly logical. You want us to behave like scientists? Well, scientists make terms clear from the start. It is just generally a bit easier than this.
 
As I've said before, I'm not going to get into infinate regression here. I say consciousness, you say define it. I say awareness, you say define it. I say experience, you say define it. And on, and on, and on.
Everyone else in these discussions is able to provide concrete definitions of these terms. No regression required, infinite or otherwise.

And bear in mind that I am specifically not wanting to influence you.

I'm wanting the atheist-materialist account of consciousness.
There is no such thing.

Now I'm looking for your definition. I already know my own.
Really? What is it then?

You agree that you're aware, right? Would it then be correct to say that the consciousness you believe exists in a cock-and-ball toilet cistern (in your model) is limited solely to just the awareness of the tank full/empty state and nothing more?
Again, you have it completely wrong.

I don't "believe" any such thing. It is a true by deductive proof from the definition.

Now, you provide your definitions.
 
The p-zombie argument fails for the very reason Pixy gives, which is one I gave in so many words in my many exchanges with Win. P-zombies who behave in every respect as if they are conscious and who believe themselves to be conscious, are in fact conscious by any materialist definition of consciousness (that is how Win defined them, BTW, but he steadfastly denied that they were conscious; they just thought they were). Any other definition of consciousness must comprise some element of a non-material explanation for it (I note that Pixy remarks in this thread that his proof works regardless of whether materialism is true, but I'm not so sure; I think it depends on what we mean by "by definition"--I take it to be under any materialist definition).
Well, what I think I have shown is that under any consistent metaphysics, the concept of p-zombies is inconsistent. That's why I'm talking about information rather than consciousness or other slippery terms. Dualism is not a consistent metaphysics, so the proof does not necessarily apply there.

Dualism can be stated in two ways:

There are two separate modes of existence that both do and do not interact - which clearly is logically inconsistent; and

There are two subsets of existence which interact inconsistently - which is itself logically consistent, but is a statement of a Universe that is inconsistent.

Any statement of Dualism that is consistent and refers to a consistent Universe is in fact a statement of Monism.

And Chalmers is a dweeb. :p
 
Any sufficiently powerful computer can do it.
Sorry, I guess I should have phrased my question differently. Yes, I know that's what you believe, but I don't know why you believe it.

Uh, that's not analogous. You're confusing the informational process with the physical means we use. A Turing machine that can read the binary data directly has no need of a CD player or the other miscellany. It can proceed straight to the stage of aural perception.
What I was trying to do was show that there's no such thing as a purely informational process; any informational process uses some physical means or other. A CD and the corresponding sound wave can be considered equivalent from a suitably abstract informational viewpoint, but they aren't physically the same thing, and not every computer can convert one to the other, even though all computers are equivalent in a more abstract sense.

How do you know that all computers are equivalent as far as qualia are concerned? Maybe consciousness depends on a particular physical instantiation of information, rather than on pure information in the abstract.
 
Dualism can be stated in two ways:

There are two separate modes of existence that both do and do not interact - which clearly is logically inconsistent; and

There are two subsets of existence which interact inconsistently - which is itself logically consistent, but is a statement of a Universe that is inconsistent.

Any statement of Dualism that is consistent and refers to a consistent Universe is in fact a statement of Monism.

Yeah, I'll go with that.

And Chalmers is a dweeb. :p

No doubt, man.

AS
 
Yes, I do see, Ian. What I see also is your apparent co-opting of my favorite criticism of the p-zombie argument and turning it on its head.

Remember where p-zombies came from. The concept of p-zombies arose from neo-dualists like David Chalmers, one of the biggest proponents of the p-zombie argument. The whole point of p-zombies as a thought experiment is to demonstrate that materialism is false.

I don't believe it does that. If p-zombies are logically possible, then, by definition, reductive materialism is false.

I'm not co-opting anything. I was merely interested in PixyMisa's "proof" that p-zombies are logically incoherent. However, all PixyMisa's arguments presuppose the correctness of reductive materialism. In other words he has completely failed to demonstrate any such proof. That is why I can't be bothered with this thread anymore.

I'll respond to you though for reasons which I have made clear before.

In order to demonstrate that materialism is false using p-zombies, the proponent must in fact begin with the given assumption that materialism is true.

No, that's absolutely impossible. To assume reductive materialism is true is, by definition, to assume that p-zombies are logically impossible.

This is because the p-zombie argument made by dualists is a proof by contradiction. To prove an assumption is false by contradiction, you must begin with assuming it is true. Basic logic.

What is this p-zombie argument? I'm not familiar with it. Enlighten me.


Thus, your observation that materialists demonstrating the logical impossibility of p-zombies are begging the question of materialism is trivial. Of course they are begging the question.

Then you are in agreement with me, and in disagreement with PixyMisa. That's fine.

The p-zombie argument fails for the very reason Pixy gives, which is one I gave in so many words in my many exchanges with Win. P-zombies who behave in every respect as if they are conscious and who believe themselves to be conscious, are in fact conscious by any materialist definition of consciousness (that is how Win defined them, BTW, but he steadfastly denied that they were conscious; they just thought they were). Any other definition of consciousness must comprise some element of a non-material explanation for it (I note that Pixy remarks in this thread that his proof works regardless of whether materialism is true, but I'm not so sure; I think it depends on what we mean by "by definition"--I take it to be under any materialist definition).

{shrugs}

Then consciousness simply means behaving in a certain way. It means nothing more than certain behaviour.

So there can be no logical distinction between p-zombies and real people. Not because p-zombies are really "conscious" (consciousness to a reductive materialist means behaviour), but because real people are not "conscious". Or, if you like, both real people and p-zombies are both conscious, and indeed equally conscious, but this consciousness simply is numerically identical to behaviour.

So, we are all p-zombies, meaning we are not at all conscious (in the normal usage of the term). However, I know with absolute certitude that I am conscious (Descartes argument). Therefore, by definition, I am not a p-zombie and this axiom of reductive materialism therefore fails. Therefore reductive materialism is necessarily false.


This is not directed as you, Ian, but did anyone else think it was some sort of inside philosophy joke that a new poster named "Mary Dennett" entered this discussion? The reason I ask is because Daniel Dennett (author of Consciousness Explained and very much a materialist, and TAM4 speaker) is a well-known and respected philosopher

I have no respect for him whatsoever.
 
Then consciousness simply means behaving in a certain way. It means nothing more than certain behaviour.

So there can be no logical distinction between p-zombies and real people. Not because p-zombies are really "conscious" (consciousness to a reductive materialist means behaviour), but because real people are not "conscious". Or, if you like, both real people and p-zombies are both conscious, and indeed equally conscious, but this consciousness simply is numerically identical to behaviour.

So, we are all p-zombies, meaning we are not at all conscious (in the normal usage of the term).
See, this is what I love about you: You really do understand the arguments against you.

But then...
However, I know with absolute certitude that I am conscious (Descartes argument). Therefore, by definition, I am not a p-zombie and this axiom of reductive materialism therefore fails. Therefore reductive materialism is necessarily false.
I can accept that you believe this. But I really, honestly do not see how you can know this with absolute certitude, given that you understand (or at least give a p-zombie-like performance of understanding) that the materialist view would predict that you would claim to know with absolute certitude...just as you do...that you are conscious! In Blackmore's terms, you would be perceiving an illusion--not that consciousness is not there, but rather that it is something other than what it seems.

How is it that you can claim absolute certitude? That is my big question.
 
I can accept that you believe this. But I really, honestly do not see how you can know this with absolute certitude, given that you understand (or at least give a p-zombie-like performance of understanding) that the materialist view would predict that you would claim to know with absolute certitude...just as you do...that you are conscious!
This argument shows only that you can't be sure Ian isn't a p-zombie, not that he can't be sure he isn't one. You can see only that he claims to be conscious, and you would see a p-zombie make the same claim. So you can't tell the difference. But the reason Ian gives for knowing he's conscious is that he is conscious, not merely that he claims to be conscious. Were he a p-zombie, he wouldn't be conscious, though he would claim to be. (I wanted to say, "The reason Ian knows he's conscious is that he's conscious of his consciousness", but that probably adds nothing.)

In Blackmore's terms, you would be perceiving an illusion--not that consciousness is not there, but rather that it is something other than what it seems.
It's hard to give a good definition of consciousness, but I think it's safe to say that an unconscious being can't perceive at all, illusions or anything else, and that nothing can seem like anything to it. So, while I'm happy to agree that lots of people have lots of misconceptions about consciousness, and that nobody fully understands it, I can't see how anyone can be mistaken about the simple fact that they are conscious. Even just being mistaken about anything presupposes consciousness.
 
So, while I'm happy to agree that lots of people have lots of misconceptions about consciousness, and that nobody fully understands it, I can't see how anyone can be mistaken about the simple fact that they are conscious. Even just being mistaken about anything presupposes consciousness.

Since there isn't a specific definition to refer to from the scientific community, how can you claim that anyone has a misconception of consciousness? What makes your definition correct?

This is something we all need to be conscious of. (:p )
 
SWhat I was trying to do was show that there's no such thing as a purely informational process; any informational process uses some physical means or other.
True. The point is that the physical means is largely irrelevant (as shown by Turing and others).

A CD and the corresponding sound wave can be considered equivalent from a suitably abstract informational viewpoint, but they aren't physically the same thing, and not every computer can convert one to the other, even though all computers are equivalent in a more abstract sense.
Doesn't matter. Our sense of hearing converts the physical sound waves back into information. The computer simply skips the whole mess of turning information into physical waves back into information, and processes it directly.

How do you know that all computers are equivalent as far as qualia are concerned?
See upthread. The concept of qualia is incoherent, so I don't worry about it.

Maybe consciousness depends on a particular physical instantiation of information, rather than on pure information in the abstract.
That's mathematically impossible.
 

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