arthwollipot
Limerick Purist
Which would be contrary to Jewish burial practices at the time.The absence of the projection of the sides could be explained if the cloth was not wrapped around the body, merely draped over the head from front to back.
Which would be contrary to Jewish burial practices at the time.The absence of the projection of the sides could be explained if the cloth was not wrapped around the body, merely draped over the head from front to back.
So the experts saw the patch? Is this your new argument?I was referring to the Shroud of Lirey.
Also, I stated that there was no invisible reweave or repair.
Wow, coloured threads. On a cloth with a pigment image......Yeah, right, then why did they cut a 1 cm strip from the sample?
"Italian author Giorgio Tessiore, discussing the sample taking, noted, “…1 cm of the newsample had to be discarded because of the presence of different color threads” (Tessiore,1988:44)."
Ehhhhh, no. Experts, examination, no patch.In other words, they cut a piece from the sample because it was from a patch.
That was last week's excuse.Then why did the archbishop of Turin have to switch the samples when no one else was looking?
Haven't you learned about posting facts in this thread?It's my understanding that they cut a 1cm by 7 cm strip.from the edge, and the shroud had a backing installed sometime after it was originally made. One small section (approx 1cm squared) had a few cotton strands from the backing still on it.
I mean, it doesn't even make sense that they used identical herringbone woven linen for the patch, then forgot and used cotton thread to tie it all together? But it does make sense for an independent backing that was never supposed to match a linen weave
For one, I am not a true believer.
I am just following the evidence in the Damon et al paper, asking why there is evidence of heterogeneity of the sample in the results.
Was the piece cut from near the edge, next to the previous Raes sample, or from the main body away from any patches or scorched areas?
Evidence of cotton fibers from the strip cut from the sample indicates that even if they were experts, they missed something, or did not have the opportunity to select an appropriate sample.
That kind of wrapping would produce a lot of wadding of the cloth around the occupant, making it virtually impossible to result in the crisp 2-D image though.With regards to the ears not showing, the ears would not show anyway due to the hair covering them., However, I did a small test using paper, and interestingly, if the ears where not covered by hair, it's possible the front of the ears would actually appear on the back (underside) image. Here's how;
If you imagine laying the body down on the cloth and folding the cloth over the head and across the front of the body, you'd then have the sides to wrap around the body—the front and back sheets. The most natural way to do this would be to fold the top sheet tight around the face and then pull the bottom sheet up and over the face. But, if you did that in reverse, pulling the bottom sheet up to the sides of the face and then wrap the top around the body, then any imprint from the front of the ear would actually appear on the back side of the cloth!
Of course, it is much more likely that they would have wrapped the top sides around the body first and then pulled the bottom sides up and over. But, thought I'd mention it!
Like that's never happened before, in any thread, ever.This thread is getting a bit repetitive.

I find the whole crucifiction story suspicious from start to end. For one Jesus was killed for breaking jewish holy law, sentenced by the Sanhedrin. The death penalty under jewish law didn't include crucifiction as a means of killing, you were either stoned or hanged. And the Romans wouldn't have stepped into the internal laws of what was a client state without good cause. My view is that either Jesus didn't die on a cross or what he was teaching was radically different from what's in the bible.I have to admit I find this thread kind of ridiculous. As if someone 400 years ago found a sword that matched some of the details from the story of King Arthur's sword Excalibur. And here we are arguing about whether it is genuine. Well, the metallurgy is similar to what can be expected from Northern England from the 5th century . And the ornamental handle is what we might expect for a King. Etc, etc, etc.
The Gospels were written 30 to 70 years after the supposed crucifixion. And even they don't even agree on the details despite 3 of them probably being copied from each other or another source. The idea that any part of the crucifixion story has any merit at all is highly suspect. That makes the idea of a piece of cloth found 1500 years later with a strange image on it being the burial cloth of Jesus insanely ridiculous.
I see you've gone from the samples being swapped out (by a man whose income depended on the shroud being believed to be genuine, no less!) to the idea that it wasn't the original but a medaeval patch. Has there bern any point in this discussion where you weren't lying?Still you can find pictures of the actual samples that were tested, I have posted those.
The patch is visible.
"The shroud was separated from the backing cloth along its bottom left-hand edge and a strip (~10 mm x 70 mm) was cut from just above the place where a sample was previously removed in 1973 for examination. The strip came from a single site on the main body of the shroud away from any patches or charred areas."
from Damon et al.
So which was it, from the left hand edge or a single site on the main body of the shroud?
Why are you actually lying about what evidence I have provided.
And as for 1st century linens with herringbone weave, you know absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
And Yes, there is blood on the shroud.
I find the whole crucifiction story suspicious from start to end. For one Jesus was killed for breaking jewish holy law, sentenced by the Sanhedrin. The death penalty under jewish law didn't include crucifiction as a means of killing, you were either stoned or hanged. And the Romans wouldn't have stepped into the internal laws of what was a client state without good cause. My view is that either Jesus didn't die on a cross or what he was teaching was radically different from what's in the bible.
Me too. And yes, those reasons make the story suspect. As if it wasn't anyway. Witness testimony is highly unreliable at best. And the Gospels weren't eyewitness accounts. They may have been the result of oral tradition. But anyone who has ever played the telephone game understands how the details of a story changes with the retelling. And this telephone game spanned 3 decades and at least 2 languages and cultures.I find the whole crucifiction story suspicious from start to end. For one Jesus was killed for breaking jewish holy law, sentenced by the Sanhedrin. The death penalty under jewish law didn't include crucifiction as a means of killing, you were either stoned or hanged. And the Romans wouldn't have stepped into the internal laws of what was a client state without good cause. My view is that either Jesus didn't die on a cross or what he was teaching was radically different from what's in the bible.
A couple of microscopic cotton fibers would not have produced the high chi^2 test.Or that they didn't see the couple of microscopic cotton fibers left over from the backing when they pulled the sample?
No, I said they must have missed the patch, or didn't have a say in where the sample was taken.So the experts saw the patch? Is this your new argument?
Wow, coloured threads. On a cloth with a pigment image......
Ehhhhh, no. Experts, examination, no patch.
"Did" or "must have?" When you say "must have" you seem to be guessing based on what you need to be true.No, I said they must have missed the patch, or didn't have a say in where the sample was taken.
Income depending on the Shroud?I see you've gone from the samples being swapped out (by a man whose income depended on the shroud being believed to be genuine, no less!) to the idea that it wasn't the original but a medaeval patch. Has there bern any point in this discussion where you weren't lying?
Why do you "need" to accept a failed chi^2 test indicating that the sample was not homogeneous?"Did" or "must have?" When you say "must have" you seem to be guessing based on what you need to be true.