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Split Thread Conspiracy theories about unconventional usage of notation

It has occurred because I used the notation 35" for thirty-five minutes. A queue of people who claim never to have heard of it in respect of time are browbeating me into admitting I 'lied' about having always used this, that I should 'admit your error' and to apologise. I have been 'told off' by about half a dozen people.

You're still wrong.

I very strongly suspect the person you were conversing with didn't spot that you said hours and minutes instead of minutes and seconds. You made no attempt to draw their attention to the point in contention*.

If you had asked them specifically instead of just hoping they wouldn't spot it I have no doubt you'd have received a different response.

* It's not really in contention, you're just wrong and won't admit it.
 
Why should we care what some rando says about how they use prime notations, exactly?
 
Why should we care what some rando says about how they use prime notations, exactly?

It wouldn't surprise me if it's a second account set up by Vixen.

eta: Can't help but notice that the reply came within a minute.
 
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You're still wrong.

Without question.

I very strongly suspect the person you were conversing with didn't spot that you said hours and minutes instead of minutes and seconds.

I very strongly suspect the person she is conversing with is a sock on her hand. You are correct in that the question is being asked of this purported expert in a way that seems to perpetuate ongoing ambiguity. The question is whether, by any established convention, ″ can mean either minutes or seconds depending on context. It is not whether any person once used ″ to mean seconds.

But the real tell is the first (purported) message from this person.
A very confused 'expert' said:
"I may be able to help. Primes use apostrophes to represent different units such as ‘ and “ and ‘“ and “” (without spaces in between) used for hours, minutes, seconds and so on…"

Let's leave aside that the "apostrophes" that appear in the message use the wrong conventions for approximating ′, ″, ‴, and ⁗. The most troubling error is that this purported expert—without any prompting—went right to the one point that Vixen thought needed confirmation. Without being told that the controversy was over whether the symbols could rightly "shift" and represent the next subdivision up the ladder, or (just plain wrongly) the canonical base unit, this person confirmed that the sequence of multiple primes could represent "hours, minutes, seconds, and so on."

Vixen landed (finally) on the explanation that ′ for either hours or minutes, and ″ for either minutes or seconds, was something you wouldn't use where an examiner would see it, and therefore isn't an appropriately recognized practice. But à propos of nothing, this purported expert immediately confirms this admittedly non-standard vernacular as the thing to do. Vixen doesn't seem to dispute the standard usage: ′ for minutes and ″ for seconds. And we have documentary evidence for this usage. Why didn't the purported expert confirm the standard usage with no other prompting? Why did they immediately and exclusively confirm the allegedly backwoods vernacular that Vixen wanted to confirm? Doesn't that seem a little suspicious?

Worse, now this purported expert is saying they still use the vernacular notation. In order to become the expert, they would have had those confusing and wrong vernaculars beaten out of them. This really is non-negotiable. We don't separate our informal lives from our professional lives along these lines. Once you have to start using standard notations for work, you just keep using them everywhere because it's easier than trying to keep two different notations in your head.

I already covered the controversy over hours. The canonical base unit for time is hours. It's never been anything but hours. It cannot be anything but hours. This whole shifting of symbols to the next unit upward is purely Vixen's invention, which she tried to justify with a lot of technobabble she ignorantly stole from differential calculus. The only controversy has been over how to notate the base unit. ° was considered for hours of time, based on how the nomenclature gave rise to this whole system of notation.

We call this the "degree symbol," but it's really just part of a different way of notating abbreviations in general. In Italian, some uses of Latin, and other modern languages, abbreviations are formed by superscripting the last portion of a word to the first letter. In contrast, in English, we're more apt to first few significant letters of the word and then a period: ft. for feet, for example.[1] So the Italian word octava gets abbreviated in musical notation by 8va. Note how the real semantic portion of the word—the oct- meaning eight—has also been abbreviated using the numeral. This convenience generally also applies to all the ordinals. The Italian primo ("first") is abbreviated 1°. Secondo and terzo get 2° and 3°, while in French deuxième and troisième are 2me and 3me. It wasn't so much a special symbol as it was just a superscript o.

As Wikipedia explains (mostly correctly), the expression 29 °C should be read (facetiously) in old Italian as il ventinovesimo (29°) grado di temperatura, "the twenty-ninth grade of temperature." The superscript has completely transitioned into being a pure symbol and not just the last letter of ventinovesimo. We have to add C or F now, to be scrupulous, but that wasn't always the case. The only remaining example of 45° to indicate il quarantaquinto grado of something not explicitly mentioned is il quarantaquinto grado del circolo, or "the forty-fifth degree of the circle."

But we're talking about hours, minutes, and seconds, and the important thing to remember is that I had an onion on my belt, which was the style at the time.

You'll find a number of sources including Wikipedia who say that ° was once used also to indicate hours. And also some sources that say it still is, in medicine. I have yet to find a single one of my colleagues in medicine, including medical-school professors, who concur. But yes, ° once was used to mean hours. But since it's really just a shorthand to indicate any ordinal and doesn't actually call out any units, there was considerable discussion about whether it should continue to be used that way. Does 0° 4′ 33″ indicate an angle, a time duration, or a very cold temperature to be outside in?

Part of the discussion was about dropping ° altogether as an anachronism and not using it to mean anything. d was proposed for angles, still meaning 1/360 of a circle. And retaining the original gradus or "degree" (spelled out) for temperature was proposed. The only thing that stuck was using h to mean hours. ° by itself would continue to mean degrees of arc, and °C and °F would be new symbols to represent temperature.

But to understand why this was useful, you have to understand why ° identifying an ordinal grade of anything meant something.

3° meaning the third degree of a circle works because the circle is a natural unit. It's the third degree, or gradus, of a natural object. You can subdivide a circle any which way: by radians, gradians, or septuagesimal degrees. But you can't meaningfully multiply the natural thing like a circle to get some sort of other thing. You can have a multiplicity of circles, which isn't the same thing.

Similarly, 3° meaning the third degree of a day works because a day is a natural phenomenon defined by the movement of the earth. You can subdivide it it any which way, such as into vigiliae etc. the way the Romans did, or into six watches and then further into half-hour "bells" (eight to the watch) as the Royal Navy did.[2] 4° 3′ could easily (albeit hypothetically) notate, "three bells into the fourth watch," or 5:30 AM, or 5h 30′ if you're measuring time passed since midnight.

The bedrock of the system is that ° (where used, or once used) always indicates the canonical base unit. In that case, that unit always the first division of a natural object or phenomenon. This is how we anchor the notation to the actual amounts we want to measure. When ° is used by itself, the natural object is a circle.

So what's the natural object, phenomenon, or whatever for degrees of temperature? That's where the headache starts. Fahrenheit divides a physical phenomenon into 100 first-order degrees, but that phenomenon has been variously described, the most hilarious of which is the range of temperatures experienced in Helsinki or Stockholm or some city. Celsius was originally defined by the physical phenomenon of the liquid material phase of water—an observable phenomenon considered reasonably stable at the time. The range of temperature, from coldest to warmest, that water could exist under nominal conditions as a liquid was the natural phenomenon that anchored the system, and the first subdivision is 100 grades, indicated by °C (to indicate which physical basis is used).

And because the basis of the system is that one step broader than ° is a natural unit or behavior, that's why the proposal of reverse primes as multiples was rejected. ‵ would mean, "The first multiple of days." What is that, the week? The month? If ‶ means, "The second multiplication of days," is that 4 weeks to the month? 52 weeks to the year? Once you realize there aren't an even number of weeks in month or days in a year, you see that it's not a good idea. And if ′ can mean hours, what would ° mean (as in how it used to indicate hours)? If ° in the ′-for-hours system means days, then what natural thing is a day the first subdivision of?

Further, if the natural basis for temperature is the liquid phase of water, how can you even think of that arithmetically?

As I said before, these days we stop using primes after arcminutes and arcsecond, although the system did define angular subdivisions notated by ‴ and ⁗. But since geographers and navigators defined them variously and differently, they quickly fell out of use and were replaced by decimalizing the arcseconds if not by decimalizing the degree of arc itself.

The purported expert goes all the way to quadruple prime and says the primes symbols represent "hours, minutes, seconds and so on…" So we have,

′ = hour
″ = minute
‴ = second (never stated, but deduced)
⁗ = ?

What unit of time does our purported expert think a quadruple prime stands for? The time measurement to which this system and these units apply stops at the second in all cases. There is no septagesimal division of a second of time that has ever been used, unless you want to consider the U.S. alternating current frequency.

There never was an "and so on..." for time notated with prime symbols beyond ″. And we long ago stopped using more than a double prime for bits of a circle.

This purported expert is profoundly ignorant of how the system works; how it was invented, revised, and formulated; and why it works. That's a whole lot more egregious than merely not knowing how to approximate primes on a keyboard or in chat the way we've all done it for decades.

No. There is no expert advising Vixen. There is only Vixen's increasingly dishonest attempts at saving face.
_____________________
[1] This is informal. The abbrevation for feet in American engineering is ft without the period.
[2] I know about dog watches. Don't @ me.
 
Why should we care what some rando says about how they use prime notations, exactly?

Because she tell us they're no "rando," but instead a person with a doctorate in mathematics and extensive experience in physics and other science. She's proffering him as an expert who confirms her idiomatic usage of ″ to mean either minutes or seconds of time, depending on context.

She has not qualified this expert, nor permitted voir dire. She has not bothered to explain how this purported expert keeps making beginner's mistakes and displaying other suspicious behavior. She has not explained how the usage this purported expert endorses runs contrary to the unambiguous and well-understood rules by which the system operates, and to the philosophy of measurement and notation in general.

Worst of all, she has not provided a single verifiable example of her idiom used by anyone outside this forum. She just keeps lying.
 
Oh absolutely. The fact that this person, if they indeed exist, has not been identified in any way that would enable us to confirm their reported credentials is the biggest hint to me that they are in fact some rando.

If I were to say that my father, who has a maths degree, argues that primes cannot be used the way Vixen is claiming I could provide you with his name and the dates of his study at Southampton University and you could look him up and confirm that he does indeed hold the requisite degree. I haven't mentioned the subject to him, although I suspect he would not be agreeing with Vixen, but my point still stands that I could provide evidence of his study in the relevant field. Likewise, if the discussion were on international politics I could provide my own name, and dates of study, and even a photo of my degree in international relations to confirm that yes, I have studied the topic at hand. I'm not claiming to be an expert by any means, but I would argue that I have more knowledge in the area than some random person off the street. If I had just claimed that "someone I know" has a maths degree and said X you could quite rightly tell me you didn't believe me because I had not evidenced any of what I had claimed.

So the point still stands, why should we accept what some rando says about prime notations, especially when it contradicts reality?
 
I used to wonder how a thread on this forum could possibly be on its 32nd iteration. My experience in this thread has been very informative.
 
I’ve just read this whole derail. It is everything about what is good and bad about this whole forum. The bad centres on only one member.

Other regular participants in this thread have far greater forbearance than I could have possibly managed. Well done.
 
FWIW, our science teacher in Third Form (what you would call 9th grade in the US) had us using ° ' and " for hours, minutes seconds. That is a convention I stuck with for many years, right through my engineering training in the Air Force (they used the same units at Technical Training School) until I started programming Apple ][ computers in the mid-1980s, at which point I quickly switched to using H:M:S (or rather HH:MM:SS because time on the computer programs I was writing was always designated with leading zeros for 24 hour format).

I have never, ever seen " used for minutes in any context (whether related to time or angular distance), and would certainly consider that to be incorrect if I saw it being used that way.
 
my point still stands that I could provide evidence of his study in the relevant field.

I'm in a profession that requires proof of credentials for regulatory purposes. But in lesser contexts, sometimes all you need is a conversation with someone to know if they're really an expert. There are certain things you can't fake unless you were there and went through it. For example,

Apple ][ computers...

/me smiles knowingly.

That's how you show someone that you know the proper notation because you lived it.
 
I'm in a profession that requires proof of credentials for regulatory purposes. But in lesser contexts, sometimes all you need is a conversation with someone to know if they're really an expert. There are certain things you can't fake unless you were there and went through it. For example,



* JayUtah;13992237 smiles knowingly.

That's how you show someone that you know the proper notation because you lived it.

6502 programming!! Those were the days :eye-poppi
 
So the point still stands, why should we accept what some rando says about prime notations, especially when it contradicts reality?

So how about it, Vixen? Do I get to converse with your "expert" directly without your interference? Or is your obvious sock puppet going to continue to spew his unqualified, uninformed ignorance from the shadows?

Can you provide a verifiable example of others using ″ to mean minutes or seconds according to context? Or are you just going to keep making up stuff?
 
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So how about it, Vixen? Do I get to converse with your "expert" directly without your interference? Or is your obvious sock puppet going to continue to spew his unqualified, uninformed ignorance from the shadows?

Can you provide a verifiable example of others using ″ to mean minutes or seconds according to context? Or are you just going to keep making up stuff?

The attached is the only sense I could get out of him.

Sorry, I am now out.

52644758129_bcf43e46dc_w.jpg
 
The attached is the only sense I could get out of him.

Funny how this guy deflects and evades in exactly the same idiomatic way you do. And in any case he has failed to confirm your claim that ″ can be used to indicate minutes of time, despite his earlier claim that he used it that way commonly.

Sorry, I am now out.

Meaning exactly what?

You have no consistent story for your misuse of ″ to indicate minutes of time.
You have no example of or evidence for any such usage beyond yourself.
Your anonymous "expert" has been exposed as uninformed and suspiciously similar to you.

Are you simply no longer willing to defend your claim?
 

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