Cont: Trans women are not women (IX)

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Want. Not need. For the good of progress all this can be taken away from you. If enough social change is thrown at it at the same time, you won't even be able to point to the bit that did the harm or gather the evidence to prove it. If it follows the normal path, in 20 years from now it will all be the new normal, and people will doubt that toilets and changing rooms were in fact any safer, if they were, perhaps it was due to the general decay in social order that happened for no reason, and put the whole thing down to bigotry.


Need.

Of course things we need can be taken away from us. It happens all the time. It doesn't mean they were mere "wants".
 
Sorry, this is a load of dingo's kidneys.
Well, I guess you would know ... ;)

You are assuming that the definitions you gave were extensional definitions, which is to say, they list the objects that a term describes, whereas in fact they are intensional definitions - incapable of explanation solely in terms of the set of objects to which they are applicable, i.e. they try to give a sense of what a term means.
What? I don't think you're paying attention.

In the same comment you're referring to, I SAID:

Yes, it does. Basically, "male" is the name of a category and members of it. And to qualify as a member one has to produce gametes, to have functioning gonads; functional gonads are the "membership dues" for the categories, male and female. Look at the article on intensional and extensional definitions:

An intensional definition gives meaning to a term by specifying necessary and sufficient conditions for when the term should be used. In the case of nouns, this is equivalent to specifying the properties that an object needs to have in order to be counted as a referent of the term.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensional_and_intensional_definitions

They're saying pretty much the same thing as what I've said about categories.

The definitions for "male" and "female" are intensional definitions. They specify the "properties" that males and females MUST have to be counted as a referent of those terms - that is, have functional gonads of either of two types.


In effect, your definitions are general, NOT specific and NOT exclusive. A pre-pubescent girl is still a female and so is a post-menopausal woman, even though neither produce gametes.
Horse crap.

The standard biological definitions - the ones I've quoted from Lexico and many other sources - clearly stipulate the necessary and sufficient conditions to qualify as members of the male and female sex categories: functional gonads of either of two types. From which it logically and inexorably follows that those with neither type are, ipso facto, sexless.
 
Originally Posted by Steersman:
Yup. Though it's really not a case of just me - all by my little own lonesome - saying that.

<further off topic rambling better suited for the DSD thread snipped>
Hardly "off topic". "smartcooky" asked a rather "smart cookie" question that was entirely germane to the topic - how can we decide who is or who is not a woman if we haven't a clue what it takes to qualify as one in the first place? To wit:

Originally Posted by smartcooky:
So let me be clear if I understand this correctly. You are saying that once my wife goes through menopause, she stops being female? Once I have passed andropause, I'm no longer a male?

A question that many here seem rather "desperate" to avoid answering.

But while you're here, can you explain how the definition you have in mind/are arguing for solves any problems with trans ID in public policy?

For example, how would you say your preferred definition helps us better answer the question of whether men in prison should be housed in women's prisons if they request it?

I'm trying - rather desperately - to point out that you're asking the WRONG question. It should be whether penis-havers should be housed in women's prisons if they request it. Squabbling over definitions seems more designed to evade that question than to answer it.

The definition I "have in mind/am arguing for" clarifies that transwomen are males - if they still have their nuts attached - or sexless eunuchs - if they don't. The latter of which may have some claim to such preferential housing, but the former most certainly don't.

A famous quote of Francis Bacon may be of some relevance:

"Therefore shoddy and inept application of words lays siege to the intellect in wondrous ways"

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Novum_Organum

If we have sloppy and self-serving definitions then it shouldn't be surprising if our laws and social policies based on them turn out to be a dog's breakfast if not cases of egregious inequities.
 
I can tell a man from a woman at ten paces. So can you. You do it every day of your life.

You seriously need to get out more. I own a shop open to the public in N AZ, it's hardly Greenwich Village here, and while I would be pretty comfortable with 95+% of my guesses that last 1-5% or so can get a bit tricky...
 
Then stop doing it.

Well, you may have something of a point there ... ;)

Though, one might reasonably suggest ..., that kind of turns on what you mean by "squabbling" - on which a definition may have some relevance ... ;)

squabble (noun): a noisy quarrel about something petty or trivial.

Is it "trivial or petty" to decide whether to allow penis-havers into "public" areas reserved for the use of vagina-havers?

Is it "petty or trivial" to decide what names we give to those two groups? Is it "trivial or petty" to question the logical consistency and coherence of the various definitions that follow from those ones?

Various women's groups - and even some feminist "philosophers" - have justifiably pointed to some solid reasons for naming those categories. Even if they may be somewhat "discomfited" by further applications of the same principles they champion:

The thing is, ‘produces large gametes’ is just what female means. And if trans women want to claim that they are female, then we’re still going to need another word for the class of humans that produces large gametes and we’re still going to insist that producing large gametes is not accidentally related to our oppression.

https://janeclarejones.com/2019/06/...isnt-just-a-figment-of-the-trans-womans-mind/

Gets a bit tricky in deciding how we define and name categories - a dozen or more cogent essays over at SEP elaborating on that in some detail, those on "natural kinds" and "necessary and sufficient conditions" in particular:

https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/natural-kinds/
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/necessary-sufficient/

But to think much less argue that words should be or can be entirely disconnected from any objective correlates is rank insanity:

"When I use a word," Humpty Dumpty said, in rather a scornful tone, "it means just what I choose it to mean—neither more nor less."
"The question is," said Alice, "whether you can make words mean so many different things."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Humpty_Dumpty#Lewis_Carroll's_Through_the_Looking-Glass

Hardly "trivial or petty" to argue otherwise.
 
Well, you may have something of a point there ... ;)

Though, one might reasonably suggest ..., that kind of turns on what you mean by "squabbling" - on which a definition may have some relevance ... ;)



Is it "trivial or petty" to decide whether to allow penis-havers into "public" areas reserved for the use of vagina-havers?

Is it "petty or trivial" to decide what names we give to those two groups? Is it "trivial or petty" to question the logical consistency and coherence of the various definitions that follow from those ones?

Various women's groups - and even some feminist "philosophers" - have justifiably pointed to some solid reasons for naming those categories. Even if they may be somewhat "discomfited" by further applications of the same principles they champion:



https://janeclarejones.com/2019/06/...isnt-just-a-figment-of-the-trans-womans-mind/

Gets a bit tricky in deciding how we define and name categories - a dozen or more cogent essays over at SEP elaborating on that in some detail, those on "natural kinds" and "necessary and sufficient conditions" in particular:

https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/natural-kinds/
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/necessary-sufficient/

But to think much less argue that words should be or can be entirely disconnected from any objective correlates is rank insanity:



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Humpty_Dumpty#Lewis_Carroll's_Through_the_Looking-Glass

Hardly "trivial or petty" to argue otherwise.

You would be on steadier ground if you didn't insist on crazy (and flat out incorrect) interpretations of definitions that lead you to odd conclusions such as post-menopausal women are no longer women ;)
 
You seriously need to get out more. I own a shop open to the public in N AZ, it's hardly Greenwich Village here, and while I would be pretty comfortable with 95+% of my guesses that last 1-5% or so can get a bit tricky...
Unless it's a fetish shop, 5% being of indeterminate sex seems like a crazy high estimate.
 
I sat in Schipol airport (Amsterdam) for a good few hours recently and amused myself by looking to see how many passers-by weren't obviously male or female at more or less first glance. Answer, one.

I couldn't see his face well because of his baseball cap, and at first glance he could have been a woman with a very strong jawline. I was just coming to the conclusion that the flat chest and narrow hips coded as male when he suddenly decided to remove not just the baseball cap but his sweatshirt. In taking off the latter he was careless in a way a woman would never be, and almost removed his t-shirt at the same time, giving me an excellent view of an unambiguously male torso.

I have no idea what n was. How many people walk past in a busy airport in about five hours?
 
The standard biological definitions - the ones I've quoted from Lexico and many other sources - clearly stipulate the necessary and sufficient conditions to qualify as members of the male and female sex categories: functional gonads of either of two types. From which it logically and inexorably follows that those with neither type are, ipso facto, sexless.

From your own sources of definitions....

1. The "standard biological definition" of a spider

https://www.lexico.com/definition/spider

"An eight-legged predatory arachnid with an unsegmented body consisting of a fused head and thorax and a rounded abdomen."

By your unique logic, if a spider loses a leg or is missing a leg due to a birth defect, even though can carry on living as normal... since it now only has seven legs, its no longer a spider. If not, what is it?

2. The "standard biological definition" of a human being is

https://www.lexico.com/definition/human_being

"A man, woman, or child of the species Homo sapiens, distinguished from other animals by superior mental development, power of articulate speech, and upright stance."

By your unique logic, a person with retarded brain function, from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident, or one who due to old age has severely diminished mental capacity (therefore does not have "superior mental development") is not a human being.

By your unique logic, a person who is a deaf-mute, from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident (therefore has no "power of articulate speech") is not a human being.

By your unique logic, a person with no legs from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident, or one who due to old age is not longer able to stand and is confined to a bed or wheelchair (therefore no "upright stance") is not a human being. If not, what is it?

As I pointed out, like your lexico definitions of male and female, these are intentional definitions. They are not voided merely because on or more definition criteria change or are no met.
 
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There must be hundreds of similar definitions that could be used as examples. This is just silly now.
 
Elite gymnasts who cannot menstruate

AmenorrhoeaWP is not particularly uncommon among elite gymnasts. Since these young women lack the "necessary and sufficient condition" to qualify as female, Steersman, should they still be eligible to compete with women?

If your answer is yes, what criteria would you use to qualify them and how would it apply to MtF transgender athletes?
 
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<snip>

2. The "standard biological definition" of a human being is

https://www.lexico.com/definition/human_being

"A man, woman, or child of the species Homo sapiens, distinguished from other animals by superior mental development, power of articulate speech, and upright stance."

By your unique logic, a person with retarded brain function, from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident, or one who due to old age has severely diminished mental capacity (therefore does not have "superior mental development") is not a human being.

By your unique logic, a person who is a deaf-mute, from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident (therefore has no "power of articulate speech") is not a human being.

By your unique logic, a person with no legs from either a birth defect, a disease or an accident, or one who due to old age is not longer able to stand and is confined to a bed or wheelchair (therefore no "upright stance") is not a human being. If not, what is it?

As I pointed out, like your Lexico definitions of male and female, these are intentional definitions. They are not voided merely because on or more definition criteria change or are no met.
Glad you finally got that the definitions I've been quoting for male and female are in fact intentional definitions.

But you may have something of a point. At least at first blush, though looking under the hood reveals some "fatal flaws" - notably that the engine is missing, so to speak.

More particularly, your definition for "human being" depends on the definition for "species":

species (noun): A group of living organisms consisting of similar individuals capable of exchanging genes or interbreeding.

https://www.lexico.com/definition/species

Basically, bottom line, bipedality or "birth defects" and the like are "accidental properties" - ones that members MAY possess but whose absence doesn't, by themselves, exclude individuals from that category:

https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/essential-accidental/

Not at all the case with the stipulative definitions of biology.
 
AmenorrhoeaWP is not particularly uncommon among elite gymnasts. Since these young women lack the "necessary and sufficient condition" to qualify as female, Steersman, should they still be eligible to compete with women?

If your answer is yes, what criteria would you use to qualify them and how would it apply to MtF transgender athletes?
Christ in a sidecar; don't think you're paying attention.

I've been arguing from square one that "male" and "female" - particularly the biological definitions for such - are the RONG criteria for qualifying people to play in "women's sports".

A better bet is simply karyotype - no XY need apply. And maybe qualify that further with genitalia.

Straining at the gnat and swallowing the camel whole ...
 
I've been arguing from square one that "male" and "female" - particularly the biological definitions for such - are the RONG criteria for qualifying people to play in "women's sports".
It may be of some interest to you that this thread was originally about who qualifies for women's sports.

A better bet is simply karyotype - no XY need apply.
Okay, but wouldn't that mean that people who aren't "women" (in your view) should qualify to play women's sport (again, in your view)?
 
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It may be of some interest to you that this thread was originally about women's sports.
Wasn't at all clear - at least from the first post in this "continuation" - what started the ball rolling.

But nice to know that I'm not likely to get chastised about the ears and exiled to the outer darkness (AAH) for various "trivial and petty" observations ... ;)

Okay, but wouldn't that mean that people who aren't "women" (in your view) should qualify to play women's sport?
Duh ... so what?

How is fixing a problem in itself a problem? How does excluding those with an XY karyotype - and/or a SRY gene - not solve the problem on the table? Regardless of how we name the individuals included or excluded.

Though I guess it might discomfit those with a more emotional attachment to the some of the labels in play ... ;)
 
It may be of some interest to you that this thread was originally about who qualifies for women's sports.

Okay, but wouldn't that mean that people who aren't "women" (in your view) should qualify to play women's sport (again, in your view)?


He has also barred women with Swyer's syndrome from women's sports.

Even the International Olympic Committee had a better grasp of the issues in the 1990s when it decreed that nobody with an SRY gene should be participating. The main problem with this was that testing everyone cost a lot of money and they didn't at that time find any cases of a male trying to cheat his way into the women's events, which was the reason for the testing.

They did find a few SRY genes, but nobody was disqualified on this account after further investigation. They didn't publish the reasons for allowing these women into the events, but one surmises things like chimera conditions (similar to freemartinism). My CAIS friend is of the opinion that a woman with CAIS is very unlikely to reach Olympic levels in any athletic discipline. (It's possible there were people like Semenya in there too, but they were allowed to go forward because they weren't deliberately cheating. I don't know. They hadn't really formulated a DSD position at the time.)

This testing was discontinued on the basis of cost, and the fact that no cheating had been detected despite all the expense. A big majority of female athletes now want it reintroduced and enforced to keep self-ID males out of women's sports. The other workable criterion is that nobody who has gone through any part of male puberty is eligible to compete. Sure, that would allow people in the category of Jazz Jennings and Jackie Green to compete, but the health problems suffered by boys who have been puberty-blocked, castrated and put on cross-sex hormones are pretty certain to make that an entirely academic observation.

Steersman has had this explained to him already, but he clings to his original incomplete criteria regardless.
 
How does excluding those with an XY karyotype - and/or a SRY gene - not solve the problem on the table?
Excluding those with SRY genes (and functional androgen receptors) would do the trick. :thumbsup:

Regardless of how we name the individuals included or excluded.
Good to hear you are willing to disregard labeling when faced with a practical problem to solve. Perhaps it would be best to take that approach henceforth, instead of trying to get people to adopt awkward neologisms like "pre-male" and "post-female."
 
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