This is the last time I'm going to post on this. It is not my mission to defend anyone's research. These links were not provided to support an assertion, they were provided to answer theprestige's question if a possible hypothesis I presented had any basis in science. The answer is, yes, it does and those studies demonstrate that, regardless of any flaws they may have.
Nobody's asking you to
defend the studies, we're just discussing them.
However, I agree that the research is not conclusive. One of the limitations of population studies is that it is impossible to control for all variables. Other variables could be hair color, eye color, geographical origin of ancestors, and any number of things. Homosexuality is just a single one.
Homosexuality is known confounding factor though, as opposed to hair color, eye color, or geographical origin of ancestors, or any number of things which are not known to be associated with transgenderism. It may be impossible to control for all variables, but one should at least control for the known confounding factors.
Not quite. First, you are correct that the results would suggest a biological basis for homosexuality. But the results would also suggest a biological basis for transgenderism within the group of homosexual transgender people.
Not necessarily. Suppose there is a convention for some homosexuals to shave their head. Suppose you do a twin study with homosexual people who shave their head and find that their twins are mostly concordant in also being homosexual people shaving their head. Have you found a biological basis for shaving one's head? Have you found a biological basis for shaving one's head
within the group of homosexuals? From the given result it's impossible to determine.
But in neither case does the correlation disappear.
Sure, but correlation doesn't imply causation. There is a very real correlation between wearing shorts and eating ice cream, yet it would still be wrong to take that as evidence for a clothes-based basis for ice cream consumption. It would be just as wrong to, after noticing the confounding factor of it being a hot day, to then claim that you
do have evidence for a clothes-based basis for ice cream consumption but
only on hot days. Correlations by themselves don't mean very much,
there are tons of statistically significant correlations out there that don't mean anything. The question isn't what correlations exist but what conclusions can be validly drawn from correlations that are found.
Given the subjectivity of the diagnosis criteria, it's kind of hard to say who is/was transgender and who was mis-diagnosed as transgender.
This seems special pleading as the same argument can be made about
any study on transgenderism, since your sample selection is always going to be based on a diagnosis of transgenderism which may or may not be misdiagnosed. If misdiagnosis was such an issue as to invalidate outcome studies then it equally invalidates any other study using diagnosis as a sample selection criterion.