kookbreaker
Evil Fokker
- Joined
- Aug 23, 2001
- Messages
- 16,490
I think there's a difference. In Latin/Catholic countries there was at that time a convention of Latin-izing many names when referring to prominent people. e.g. Copernicus, Stradivarius, Nostrodamus, etc.
Regarding Shakespeare, it's only a small point that he never used that spelling himself, but perhaps odd. Would not this author have literary control over how his name was spelled on his own works? If he wanted to change/regularise it to "Shakespeare" because it sounded/looked better, why not adopt that spelling in private life?
You are applying a modern mentality to someone in 16th/17th century England. Most common folks rarely cared how their name was spelled.