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Historical Jesus

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Whether or not there were post-first century Chrestians there is still no historical evidence for the supposed Jesus of Nazareth, his family, his apostles and Paul as claimed in the Bible.

All we have are fiction, forgeries, false attribution and anonymous sources of unknown date of authorship.

It is a myth that people called Christians in the 1st century could have only been believers in or followers of the character called Jesus of Nazareth

Writings of antiquity stated that there were people called Christians since at least 41-54 CE who were followers of or believed in Simon Magus as God, Menander, Basilides, Valentinus, Basilides, Marcus and others.

None of the NT books are historical accounts of the supposed Jesus, his family, the apostles and Paul.

There is not a single mention of a single Jew who was a Christian and worshiped a man called Jesus as a God in any accepted historical writings of the 1st century.


Jesus, his family, the apostles and Paul are all 2nd century inventions.

Yet again you misrepresent the argument. NO-ONE is arguing that the divine, miracle-working Jesus of the gospels existed. Merely that the probability is, given the Jesus movement began at a particular time in history, it was grounded in an actual mortal man, albeit NOT the divine being as described in the gospel.

Your repetitious efforts to deny this non-controversial probability - one that is held by the vast majority of scholars in the field - is as bizarre as the most fervent apologist's attempts to "prove" that the the dying and rising god/man Jesus actually existed.
 
I'm not a Christian so I don't care what apologists claim. If you think there is evidence to link pre-First Century CE Chrestians to post-First Century Christians outside of the names, I'd love to see it. Do you have evidence?

It has already been provided via links.

The full inscription is D. M ANN. XXXXII. DIES VII
FAVSTVS. ANTONIAE. DRVSI. IVS EMIT. IVCVNDI. CHRESTIANI. OLL

Corpus Inscriptionum Latinarum identity number CILVI24944

The lest part is Jucundus, the Chrestian. The latest the inscription could be would be 37 CE and Christian records show that the term Chrestian wasn't adopted by the Followers of Jesus until 44 CE. "Christiani/Chrestiani is indeed used in literature, about the days of Nero, and later days, but not regarding the days of Tiberius or Caligula, or even Claudius (...) If Acts is reflecting an actual chronology, the disciples would have been called Christians around 44 CE". And yet there are Pro-Historical Jesus supporters that state that Jucundus the Christian ins a follower of Christ even though the inscription could be as early as 37 BCE and the groups wasn't supposedly using that name until some 7 years later. The tap dance to avoid the implications of this is a wonder to behold and IMHO not supposed in the efforts to make the TF seem valid.

At least one group identified by Christian scholar as Christian and others is known to have existed in the 1st century BCE. "Bernard Dubourg (1987) connects Pliny's Nazerini with early Christians, and Dubourg dates Pliny's source between 30 and 20 BCE and, accounting for the lapse of time required for the installation in Syria of a sect born in Israel/Judea, suggests the presence of a Nasoraean current around 50 BCE"

Yet again you misrepresent the argument. NO-ONE is arguing that the divine, miracle-working Jesus of the gospels existed. Merely that the probability is, given the Jesus movement began at a particular time in history, it was grounded in an actual mortal man, albeit NOT the divine being as described in the gospel.

Your repetitious efforts to deny this non-controversial probability - one that is held by the vast majority of scholars in the field - is as bizarre as the most fervent apologist's attempts to "prove" that the the dying and rising god/man Jesus actually existed.

What "vast majority of scholars in the field"? Much of the stuff I have seen at best dumps the supernatural stuff and then tries to shoehorn the rest in a 4 BCE-36 CE timeline with all the subtly of getting a square peg into a round hole via s 20 lb sledgehammer.

The efforts to make Matthew and Luke agree is still hoot and the efforts to make the census valid border on jaw dropping goofy. Then there is the magical moving date of Herod's death to 1 BCE with Marshall, Taylor. The Eternal City (Dallas: St. John, 2012), pp. 35–65. and Steinmann, Andrew. From Abraham to Paul: A Biblical Chronology (St. Louis: Concordia, 2011), pp. 235–238. being the latest trips down that impossible rabbit hole.

Bromiley, Geoffrey W., ed (1995). International Standard Bible Encyclopedia: E-J. Eerdmans. ISBN 978-0802837820. tries to claim the mythical Jesus is historical. All you need is one example of somebody arguing that the divine, miracle-working Jesus of the gospels existed and Bromiley is it and I wish I was kidding because it is just painful to read this nonsense.... which seems to be about anything else Eerdmans puts out.
 
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At least one group identified by Christian scholar as Christian and others is known to have existed in the 1st century BCE. "Bernard Dubourg (1987) connects Pliny's Nazerini with early Christians, and Dubourg dates Pliny's source between 30 and 20 BCE and, accounting for the lapse of time required for the installation in Syria of a sect born in Israel/Judea, suggests the presence of a Nasoraean current around 50 BCE"
Did you research that for yourself, or did you just accept it? Pliny calls it the "Tetrarchy of the Nazerini". It's an governed area, not a sect, located in the north of Syria. I can't find any other scholar that believes the name of the area has any relation to the later Nazarene sect. In other words, it seems to be a coincidence of naming. Is Dubourg's view main-stream or fringe? If it's fringe, is it just him who thinks this? Is the idea speculation only, based on the coincidence of the name? Or is there more evidence for it?

Here is what Pliny the Elder wrote. You can see he is just giving a list of places in Syria. He tells us nothing more about the Nazerini other than the name:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.02.0137:book=5:chapter=19

We must now speak of the interior of Syria. Cœle Syria has the town of Apamea, divided by the river Marsyas from the Tetrarchy of the Nazerini; Bambyx, the other name of which is Hierapolis, but by the Syrians called Mabog, (here the monster Atargatis, called Derceto by the Greeks, is worshipped); and the place called Chalcis on the Belus, from which the region of Chalcidene, the most fertile part of Syria, takes its name.​

PLEASE do your own research on these things. Don't just blindly accept whatever any fringe scholar writes.

It has already been provided via links.

The full inscription is D. M ANN. XXXXII. DIES VII
FAVSTVS. ANTONIAE. DRVSI. IVS EMIT. IVCVNDI. CHRESTIANI. OLL

Corpus Inscriptionum Latinarum identity number CILVI24944

The lest part is Jucundus, the Chrestian. The latest the inscription could be would be 37 CE and Christian records show that the term Chrestian wasn't adopted by the Followers of Jesus until 44 CE.
But so what? Suetonius refered to a person called "Chrestus", whom probably had nothing to do with "Christus". Since "Chrestus" (meaning "good") was a common name for a slave, the coincidence is not unexpected. You gave me a whole list of groups whom might have been called "Chrestians" without having any connection at all with Christianity. Here, I'll repeat them for you:

*chraomai: consulting an oracle
*chresterion: "the seat of an oracle" and "an offering to, or for, the oracle."
*Chrestes: one who expounds or explains oracles, "a prophet, a soothsayer"
*chresterios (χρηστήριος): one who belongs to, or is in the service of, an oracle, a god, or a "Master"
*theochrestos: "God-declared," or one who is declared by god.
*Χρη̃̃σις –ιος, Att. – εως, ή (fr. χράω to use) use, utility, profit; a loan, an oracle, response; a quotation, extract, passage from another writer a χρησιν.
* Χρησμολογίω - ω̄, (fr. Χρηςμὸς an oracle, and λέγω to speak) to speak oracles, prophesy, foretell; to interpret omens, explain oracles.
*Χρησμολογίa –ας ή (fr. same) delivery of an oracle, prophecy, divination, foretelling; interpretation or application of an oracle.
*Χρησμολόγος, -ου ό ή (fr. same) a deliverer of oracles, a diviner, prophet; an interpreter or expounder of oracles.
*Χρησήρ, -η̃ρος, ό (fr. χράω to deliver oracles) giving oracles, oracular.
*Χρηστήριος, - ον, ό (fr. χράω to deliver oracles) oracular, foreboding, prophetic.
*Χρήστης, -ου, ό (fr. χράω to lend) a creditor, lender of money, usurer; a debtor, borrower; a declarer of oracles, prophet.

What I am interested in is if there is any evidence that links those pre-First Century CE Chrestians to post-First Century Christians. It's an interesting question. I'd love to see evidence linking those two groups. Because otherwise it may just be a coincidence in naming, like "Christus" and "Chrestus", or the sect "Nazarenes" with the governed area "Tetrarchy of the Nazerini".

Do you have evidence linking those pre-First Century CE Chrestians to post-First Century Christians? If you don't, I'll let you have the last word. Thanks.
 
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Yet again you misrepresent the argument. NO-ONE is arguing that the divine, miracle-working Jesus of the gospels existed. Merely that the probability is, given the Jesus movement began at a particular time in history, it was grounded in an actual mortal man, albeit NOT the divine being as described in the gospel.

Your repetitious efforts to deny this non-controversial probability - one that is held by the vast majority of scholars in the field - is as bizarre as the most fervent apologist's attempts to "prove" that the the dying and rising god/man Jesus actually existed.

I am arguing that Jesus of Nazareth never ever existed. The character was fabricated no earlier than the 2nd century.
 
Do you have evidence linking those pre-First Century CE Chrestians to post-First Century Christians? If you don't, I'll let you have the last word. Thanks.

This information comes from Chrestians before "Christians? An Old Inscription Revisited" (2009) by Erík Zara, Th.D. Yes, 11 years is old real old...:boggled: (In case you don't get I am being sarcastic as all get out here)

The Chrestianos Issue in Tacitus Reinvestigated is another example of his work. So he doesn't bring up stuff that has been dead and gone but stuff that was and still is recent.

The claim "For the sake of clarity, I will add that this particular manuscript of Annales does not contain the name Chrestus. No evidence of any alteration of the word “Christus” can be found in the ultraviolet photograph." falls apart when you look at the document - the word is NOT Christus but "Chrstus".

I might add that over the years Christian Scholars have read the word as Chrestus generally when they try to connect it to the Suetonius reference to "Chrestus". The effort to get Suetonius and Tacitus to agree is even more of a hoot. The ad hoc shoehorning of Chrestus to mean Christus is laughable. It is on par with saying the Chief and Chef mean the same thing because there is only one letter difference. I guess Sitting Bull and Crazy Horse must have been great bakers. :boggled:

Yes it is absurd to the point of ridiculousness but that is what some of these scholars keep doing.

I am arguing that Jesus of Nazareth never ever existed. The character was fabricated no earlier than the 2nd century.

This is one thing I strongly disagree with. As the rationalwiki Jesus myth theory article says:

Some versions of the Christ myth theory (such as Kenneth Humphreys') suggest that Paul was a fictional person. To put it bluntly, this is one of the places where parts of the Christ myth goes off the rails and enters tin foil hat land.

Saying Paul was fictional would make sense if he provided a "smoking gun" to the pro-historical Jesus debate but the fact is he brings nothing to the table; his Jesus is a being only seen via visions. Paul supposedly talks with people who based on the Gospels should have known the living Jesus and yet Paul doesn't give one actual detail regarding Jesus's activities on Earth. Also, someone wrote the authentic/early Pauline epistles and calling that author Ed, Bill or RamaLamaDingDong doesn't change the fact that these letters were an important influence on Christianity. You don't have to accept the clearly embroidered version in Acts to find the Pauline authorship of these early epistles historically plausible. Contrast Jesus, from whom we have no letters or other writings and who is portrayed through and through in the supernatural light seen in other myths and legends, with Paul, who in his own letters doesn't claim any supernatural powers, except for his opinion that he has some sort of mental hotline to God and Jesus.

From an Occam's Razor standpoint a fictional Paul doesn't make any sense; it just adds an unneeded level of complexity to the Christ Myth Theory. Moreover, what actual purpose does such an idea even serve? If anything, claiming Paul is a fictional creation smacks of the kind of Illuminati level conspiracy theory nonsense seen in Joseph Wheless' 1930 Forgery In Christianity that only convinces most people that the Christ myth theory does belong in the same land of crazy as those who deny the Holocaust or Moon landings.
 
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But so what? Suetonius refered to a person called "Chrestus", whom probably had nothing to do with "Christus". Since "Chrestus" (meaning "good") was a common name for a slave, the coincidence is not unexpected. You gave me a whole list of groups whom might have been called "Chrestians" without having any connection at all with Christianity. Here, I'll repeat them for you...



Chrestus meaning good is used to refer to the Lord God of Jews multiple times in the Septuagint.

Greek Septuagint Psalms 33.9
9 γεύσασθε καὶ ἴδετε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ Κύριος· μακάριος ἀνήρ, ὃς ἐλπίζει ἐπ᾿ αὐτόν.

English translation Septuagint Psalms 33.9
Taste and see that the Lord is good[Chrestus][χρηστὸς] blessed is the man who hopes in him.

Septuagint Psalms 99.5
ὅτι χρηστὸς Κύριος, εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τὸ ἔλεος αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἕως γενεᾶς καὶ γενεᾶς ἡ ἀλήθεια αὐτοῦ...

English translation --Septuagint Psalms 99. 5
For the Lord is good [Chrestus] [χρηστὸς] , his mercy is for ever; and his truth [endures] to generation and generation.

Septuagint Psalms 105.1
᾿Αλληλούϊα. - ΕΞΟΜΟΛΟΓΕΙΣΘΕ τῷ Κυρίῳ, ὅτι χρηστός, ὅτι εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τὸ ἔλεος αὐτοῦ.

English translation--Septuagint Psalms 105.1
[Alleluia.] Give thanks to the Lord; for he is good [Chrestus] [χρηστός]: for his mercy [endures] for ever.

Followers or believers in the Good God [Chrestians] were long before the 1st century.
 
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In The Apology attributed to Tertullian it is shown that the name "Christian" is derived from the Greek word meaning anointing.

https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0301.htm

Tertullian Apology
But Christian, so far as the meaning of the word is concerned, is derived from anointing. Yes, and even when it is wrongly pronounced by you Chrestianus (for you do not even know accurately the name you hate), it comes from sweetness and benignity.

That the name Christian is derived from anointing is also mentioned in To Autolycus attributed to Theophilus.

https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/02041.htm

To Autolycus 1
And about your laughing at me and calling me Christian, you know not what you are saying. First, because that which is anointed is sweet and serviceable, and far from contemptible................ Wherefore we are called Christians on this account, because we are anointed with the oil of God.

It is clear that in antiquity a Christian cult did not require an historical Jesus but a belief that they were anointed by their God.
 
The ad hoc shoehorning of Chrestus to mean Christus is laughable. It is on par with saying the Chief and Chef mean the same thing because there is only one letter difference.
Umm... good point? :jaw-dropp
 

Cute and funny. :D

Umm... good point? :jaw-dropp

As I pointed out a long time ago the Codex Vaticanus (300–325) uses Koine Greek which uses a diphthongizing of the iota into an epsilon-iota resulting in the really odd spelling of "Chreistian". The Codex Bezae (c. 400) also uses this particular spelling.

It is like a missing link in the "evolution" of "Chrestian" into "Christian". Of course for some of these guys "evolution" doesn't exist. :D :boggled:

As I have said with the possibly of a older pagan group called "Chrestian" running round, groups called "Christian" by 4th century Church father having evidence of existing clear back into the 1st century BCE, and evidence of Christianity pulling things from older religions things are kind of a mess.

"Bernard Dubourg (1987) connects Pliny's Nazerini with early Christians, and Dubourg dates Pliny's source between 30 and 20 BCE and, accounting for the lapse of time required for the installation in Syria of a sect born in Israel/Judea, suggests the presence of a Nasoraean current around 50 BCE" - "Christians? An Old Inscription Revisited" (2009) by Erík Zara, Th.D.

Erík Zara then proceeds to think Occam Razor is something you shave with (:p) and comes up with an overly complicated explanation to effectively ignore this evidence of a Christian group because he presupposed the idea the group didn't exist before Jesus - it is the issue James Burke was on about in Connections that you have to make assumptions in evaluating your data.

In proper science (and yes history is considered a social science in many universities and colleges) this would be a smoking gun that the assumption that Christian do not not predate Jesus was wrong. But instead it is full speed ahead and pull out the 20 pounder to make things fit. :(
 
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maximara said:
It is on par with saying the Chief and Chef mean the same thing because there is only one letter difference. I guess Sitting Bull and Crazy Horse must have been great bakers

It is actually far worse. It appears that there weren't any followers of the supposed Jesus Christ when Acts of the Apostles and 1 Peter were composed.

In the NT it is claimed hundreds of times Jesus was called Christos [Christ].

The Septuagint, written long before the NT, and was used by supposed Christian writers and it is seen the Greek word for the "anointed" or Christ [χριστὸν] is found multiple time in books like 1&2 Samuel and the Psalms.

Septuagint 2 Samuel 1.14
καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Δαυίδ· πῶς οὐκ ἐφοβήθης ἐπενεγκεῖν χεῖρά σου διαφθεῖραι τὸν χριστὸν Κυρίου

English Translation 2 Sam.1. 14
And David said to him, How was it thou wast not afraid to lift thy hand to destroy the anointed of the Lord?

Septuagint Psalms 2
παρέστησαν οἱ βασιλεῖς τῆς γῆς, καὶ οἱ ἄρχοντες συνήχθησαν ἐπὶ τὸ αὐτὸ κατὰ τοῦ Κυρίου καὶ κατὰ τοῦ χριστοῦ αὐτοῦ.

English Translation Psalms 2.2
The kings of the earth stood up, and the rulers gathered themselves together, against the Lord, and against his Christ..

No problem at all is found with the spelling of the Greek word for Christ or the anointed in the Septuagint.

In the Old Testament of the existing Codices there is also no error with the spelling of the Greek word for Christ or the anointed.

However, in the earliest existing Codices, the Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, dated to the 4th century, there is no mention of followers of Christ [Christians] but followers of ChrEstos [ChrEstianos] in the Sinaiticus and an unknown name, ChrEIstianos in the Vaticanus.

What is most laughable is that the authors of the 1st Epistle of Peter a supposed follower of Christ addressed the believers as followers of ChrEstos or ChrEIstos and in Acts 26.28 King Agrippa claimed he was almost persuaded to be become a believer in ChrEstos or ChrEIstos.

As expected, the earliest existing Codices, could not even corroborate that there were people called Christians of a supposed cult who worshiped a character called Jesus Christ as a God before c 70 CE or before the Fall of the Jewish Temple.
 
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It is actually far worse. It appears that there weren't any followers of the supposed Jesus Christ when Acts of the Apostles and 1 Peter were composed.

In the NT it is claimed hundreds of times Jesus was called Christos [Christ].

This is where things get weird. The Anointed One, Or The Ointment? (reference in one of the pages I have provided links to) asked this:

The Greek word Χριστος (Christos) is how "anointed one" is rendered in the LXX and the NT. But is it an actual translation of the Hebrew "messiah" (מְשִׁיח :: anointed)?

And followed up with this piece of weirdness: :boggled:

The verb "to anoint" is χρίω (chrio) in Greek. I made an earlier post that listed all of the times that Josephus uses that word. It is about 10 times. Many times, Josephus uses "anointed" but he never uses the word χριστος to describe this. Some varieties he uses are χρισαμενος (part sg aor mid masc nom), χρίει (verb 3rd sg pres ind act), χρισατες (part sg aor act masc nom attic epic ionic). Granted, these are all varieties of verb forms of the word. So what would "one who is anointed" be like in Greek? Would it be χριστος?

Euripides, "Hippolytus" 486:
Φαίδρα
πότερα δὲ χριστὸν ἢ ποτὸν τὸ φάρμακον;
Phaedra
This drug, is it an ointment or a potion?

Aeschylus, "Prometheus Bound" 479-480:
Προμηθεύς
...οὔτε βρώσιμον, οὐ χριστόν, οὐδὲ πιστόν, ἀλλὰ φαρμάκων χρεία...
Prometheus
...no healing food, no ointment, nor any drink—but for lack of medicine...

Here, χριστος doesn't mean "anointed", it means the substance that does the anointing! Or something that is rubbed on. In other words, χριστος means something like "ointment", not "anointed one".

So why would the translators of the LXX confuse "one who is anointed" with "that which is used to anoint"? This had to have been done multiple times, since χριστος is written all throughout the LXX. This adds more confusion to the two mentions of "christ" in Josephus. Why would Josephus mention - to his Greek and Roman audience - that some guy was called "the ointment" without explanation?

---
So what is going on? Well the Septuagint is thought to have been translated into Greek around 285–247 BCE and what we are seeing islinguistic drift.

The Evidence for the historical existence of Jesus Christ page talks about this:

Furthermore. it is ad hoc to say christos and chrestos were homophones because there is no real evidence for it. Compare how English sounded in Shakespeare's time to say the 19th century. 'Here' was spelled 'heare' and rhymed with 'air'; 'reason' was pronounced 'raisin'; 'creature' was pronounced 'crater', and 'boiled' pronounced 'bile'. [215] and regional dialects made things even more then a mess as 'Egges' was 'Eyren' in some localities.[note 9] Latin wasn't immune from this[216] So just like 'chief' and 'chef' are pronounced differently despite their similar spelling the same could be true of 'christos' and 'chrestos' when they were commonly used. Close homophones like lavatory (a bathroom) and laboratory (a lab) show the regional issue as some people pronounce the 'v' as a 'b' creating confusion between the two words.
 
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This is where things get weird. The Anointed One, Or The Ointment? (reference in one of the pages I have provided links to) asked this:

The Greek word Χριστος (Christos) is how "anointed one" is rendered in the LXX and the NT. But is it an actual translation of the Hebrew "messiah" (מְשִׁיח :: anointed)?

And followed up with this piece of weirdness: :boggled:

The verb "to anoint" is χρίω (chrio) in Greek. I made an earlier post that listed all of the times that Josephus uses that word. It is about 10 times. Many times, Josephus uses "anointed" but he never uses the word χριστος to describe this......

You seem to be in error. The word Χριστοῦ is found in a writing attributed to Josephus.

In Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 attributed to Josephus written in the 1st century the Greek word Χριστοῦ is used to mean "the anointed one"[Christ].

Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1
.....Ἰησοῦ τοῦ λεγομένου Χριστοῦ...
English translation -- Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1
.....Jesus who was called Christ....

The fact that Χριστοῦ meaning the anointed one or Christ is found in Antiquities of the Jews means that Greek word Χριστοῦ was known, used and correctly spelled in the 1st century.

In the forgery of Antiquities of the Jews 18.3.3 the word "χριστὸς" for "the anointed one" and "Χριστιανῶν" for "Christians" are found.

Antiquities of the Jews 18.3.3
........ ὁ χριστὸς οὗτος ἦν............. τῶν Χριστιανῶν ἀπὸ τοῦδε...

Christian writers also admitted that Jews gave the title of Christ [the anointed] to their Kings and Priest who were actually anointed with oil in Jewish ritual.

Eusebius' Church History 1.3.7
. And not only those who were honored with the high priesthood, and who for the sake of the symbol were anointed with especially prepared oil, were adorned with the name of Christ among the Hebrews, but also the kings...

NT writers could not write about followers or believers in their Christ because no such character existed.
 
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In proper science (and yes history is considered a social science in many universities and colleges) this would be a smoking gun that the assumption that Christian do not not predate Jesus was wrong. But instead it is full speed ahead and pull out the 20 pounder to make things fit. :(

You mean as opposed to "full speed ahead and pull out the 20 pounder to make things fit" mythicism, which is a fringe theory recognized as such by majority scholarship.

"Mythicism: A Story of Bias, Incompetence and Falsehood".

https://rjosephhoffmann.wordpress.com/2012/05/22/the-jesus-process-maurice-casey/
 
You mean as opposed to "full speed ahead and pull out the 20 pounder to make things fit" mythicism, which is a fringe theory recognized as such by majority scholarship.

"Mythicism: A Story of Bias, Incompetence and Falsehood".

https://rjosephhoffmann.wordpress.com/2012/05/22/the-jesus-process-maurice-casey/

"He (Luke) did not read about ‘wise men’ being ‘Gentiles’ at the birth of Jesus. He read about ‘magoi from the East’ (Mt. 2.1). From his point of view they were something like magicians or astrologers, and the notion that ‘we saw his star in the East’ (Mt. 2.2) probably seemed silly enough, before he got to ‘Behold, the star which they saw in the East, went before them, until it came and stood over the place where the child was’ (Mt. 2.9). "

Any actual evidence for this Ad hoc song and dance? Of course there isn't is as that is the very meaning of ad hoc. Commenter stevenbollinger sums up the rambling mess that is this piece well:

"And speaking of authority, I don’t know of another area of inquiry than that of the historical Jesus where non-academics are so frequently attacked for being non-academics. If someone’s arguments are unsound, fine, attack her arguments. But to disparage her lack of a PhD before even addressing her arguments makes one guilty of the fallacy of appeal to authority. You don’t need a PhD to know that. You don’t necessarily even need to take an introductory course in formal logic to know that.
(...)

For my own part, I am not at all impressed when someone goes on at such length about their opponents’ lack of Doctorates. Address what your opponents actually say. And if there is something to these allegations of systemic bias, it shouldn’t surprise anyone if there are people with open minds on one side, and with thorough training on the other, and relatively few with both.

(...)

And by the way, Casey does not even mention G A Wells, who has addressed those early-twentieth-century works by Smith et al which, according to academic orthodoxy, laid the whole matter to rest."

--
Wells is anotehr example of the gay abandon the historical Jesus crowd throws around "mythist" even if it is in reference the idea the Gospel Jesus is a myth rather than there not being a man behind that stories.

The rationalwiki article Christ myth theory goes into a sampling of the various definitions thrown around.

Heck, the pro historical Jesus supporters were such a group of Know Nothings that poor Sir James George Frazer had bluntly state "My theory assumes the historical reality of Jesus of Nazareth" and even though he did so you still got nonsense like this:

"I especially wanted to explain late Jewish eschatology more thoroughly and to discuss the works of John M. Robertson, William Benjamin Smith, James George Frazer, Arthur Drews, and others, who contested the historical existence of Jesus. It is not difficult to pretend that Jesus never lived. The attempt to prove it, however, invariably produces the opposite conclusion." - Albert Schweitzer in Out of My Life and Thought (1931)

G.a Wells was in the same boat about a century later. Some old misrepressive BS:

Wells accepted that there was a 1st century Jesus in both Jesus Myth (1996) and Jesus Legend (1999)--yet these books were labeled as examples of the Mythical Jesus Thesis, defined as the idea of "Jesus tradition is virtually--perhaps entirely--fictional in nature" (sic) in Eddy and Boyd's 2007 The Jesus Legend Baker Academic on pp. 24.

And while we are at it let's look at what Arthur Drews actually said:

"In wide circles the doubt grows as to the historical character of the picture of Christ given in the Gospels. [...] If in spite of this any one thinks that besides the latter a Jesus also cannot be dispensed with; but we know nothing of Jesus. Even in the representations of historical theology, he is scarcely more than the shadow of a shadow. Consequently it is self-deceit to make the figure of this 'unique' and 'mighty' personality, to which a man may believe he must on historical grounds hold fast, the central point of religious consciousness." (Drews, Arthur (1910) The Christ Myth)

And here is a summation of John M. Robertson:

"[John] Robertson is prepared to concede the possibility of an historical Jesus, perhaps more than one, having contributed something to the Gospel story. "A teacher or teachers named Jesus, or several differently named teachers called Messiahs" (of whom many are on record) may have uttered some of the sayings in the Gospels.

1) The Jesus of the Talmud, who was stoned and hanged over a century before the traditional date of the crucifixion, may really have existed and have contributed something to the tradition.
2) An historical Jesus may have "preached a political doctrine subversive of the Roman rule, and thereby met his death"; and Christian writers concerned to conciliate the Romans may have suppressed the facts.
3) Or a Galilean faith-healer with a local reputation may have been slain as a human sacrifice at some time of social tumult; and his story may have got mixed up with the myth.

The myth theory is not concerned to deny such a possibility (that Jesus existed as a human being). What the myth theory denies is that Christianity can be traced to a personal founder who taught as reported in the Gospels and was put to death in the circumstances there recorded"

I might add that Carrier had a field day tearing Maurice Casey's Jesus: Evidence and Argument or Mythicist Myths? new one which came out two years after the article presented and "The best way to describe this book is to imagine a rambling weirdo running into a grove of orange trees with a hammer and in a random frenzy smacking half the low hanging fruit, and then beating his chest and declaring proudly how the trees are now barren."

Heck even the somewhat rambly Evidence for the historical existence of Jesus Christ is more coherent than that.

"The flaws in the book render it pretty much useless. You won’t ever know if Casey is honestly representing his opponents or even correctly describing what they’ve said (without just reading his opponents directly, which you can do more ably without his book). You often won’t know if something he is claiming is actually the mainstream consensus or a fringe view or still widely debated. You won’t find any refutations of the best mythicist arguments for any point. And you’ll get a headache trying to endure its tedious, rambling, child-like writing style, splattered with repetitious bouts of emotionally bitter pomposity" The article is more or less the same.

For all its flaws (like having issue in keeping what it means by mythical Jesus straight) Eddy and Boyd's 2007 The Jesus Legend Baker Academic is at least readable and has good counter arguments to Carrier's later work (though it tends to overplay the evidence at times). Casey article's has neither of those.

"More importantly, Casey goes against nearly the entire mainstream consensus in the field by insisting the Gospels are bizarrely early, Mark being written in the 40s and Matthew in the 50s." Saying Mark is no earlier than 101 CE (as some mythists admittedly do) is silly but to say it was written before Paul is just stark raving bonkers.
 
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......"More importantly, Casey goes against nearly the entire mainstream consensus in the field by insisting the Gospels are bizarrely early, Mark being written in the 40s and Matthew in the 50s." Saying Mark is no earlier than 101 CE (as some mythists admittedly do) is silly but to say it was written before Paul is just stark raving bonkers.

Casey admitted there is no general agreement as to the methods which scholars should use to uncover the history of Jesus.

It is most laughable when Casey ridicules scholars about fringe arguments when he himself put forward early dates for gMark and gMatthew which are rejected almost universally.

In any event, it does not matter how early or late the Gospels were written they still state Jesus of Nazareth was a water-walking, transfiguring, son of a ghost without a human father, who resurrected and ascended in a cloud after appearing to his disciples.

No-one associated with Jesus of Nazareth, his family, his apostles and Paul are found in any historical writings - not one.

Plus, there is not one Jewish christian of a Jesus cult recorded in any Jewish writing of the 1st century.

Jesus, his family, his disciples and Paul are all fiction characters fabricated no earlier than the 2nd century.
 
Casey admitted there is no general agreement as to the methods which scholars should use to uncover the history of Jesus.

Carrier mentions this fact in his book. As pointed out in the Evidence article:

So even if Jesus is a historical myth (i.e., was a flesh-and-blood man), you could have the issue of the Gospel narrative being essentially false and telling you nothing about the actual Jesus other than that he existed; as Robert Price puts it "For even if we trace Christianity back to Jesus ben Pandera or an Essene Teacher of Righteousness in the first century BCE, we still have a historical Jesus." The problem is that such a reductive historical Jesus is similar to Robin Hood or King Arthur, where the core person (if there ever was one to begin with) has been effectively lost, and potential candidates are presented as much as 200 years from when their stories traditionally take place.

To make Jesus more than that a researcher has to assume some parts of the Gospel narrative is essentially true. But which parts? In answering that question all supporters of a "historical Jesus" get into the confirmation bias problem of effectively turning Jesus into a Tabula Rasa on which they overlay their own views.

It is most laughable when Casey ridicules scholars about fringe arguments when he himself put forward early dates for gMark and gMatthew which are rejected almost universally.

Yes, it is bad. Not on the level of J. P. Holding who is at times Alice in wonderland tripping on LSD levels of bad but bad none the less.

I just have to wonder why with so many better authors like Eddy and Boyd on the Pro Historical Jesus side the armchairs brigade seem to gravitate to those that are the whole reason the more gonzo Christ Myth theories get traction.

In any event, it does not matter how early or late the Gospels were written they still state Jesus of Nazareth was a water-walking, transfiguring, son of a ghost without a human father, who resurrected and ascended in a cloud after appearing to his disciples.

Evidence...touches on this:

Reductive theory (Remsburg's Jesus of Nazareth)
* Jesus was an ordinary but obscure individual who inspired a religious movement and copious legends about him, rather than being a totally fictitious creation like King Lear or Dr Who [sic]

Triumphalist theory (Remsberg's Jesus of Bethlehem)
* The Gospels are totally or almost totally true, rather than being works of imagination like those of King Arthur.

(...)
Jesus is at the core of Christian theology. His existence and death is a critical point for virtually all Christians, and his life being exactly as detailed in the Gospels is important to many Christians. As a result nearly all presentations of evidence gravitate to the Triumphalist end of the spectrum:

"Either side of the historicity debate will at times engage in a fallacy here, citing evidence supporting the reductive theory in defense of the triumphalist theory (as if that was valid), or citing the absurdity of the triumphalist theory as refuting the reductive theory (as if that were valid)" - Carrier, Richard (2014). On the Historicity of Jesus. SheffieldPhoenix Press. ISBN 978-1-909697-49-2. 0g 30

You keep going after the triumphalist Jesus and even Remsburg who felt there was a man behind the story discounted that Jesus:

"Jesus of Nazareth, the Jesus of humanity, the pathetic story of whose humble life and tragic death has awakened the sympathies of millions, is a possible character and may have existed; but the Jesus of Bethlehem, the Christ of Christianity, is an impossible character and does not exist." Remsburg then clarifies this position by stating "That a man named Jesus, an obscure religious teacher, the basis of this fabulous Christ, lived in Palestine about nineteen hundred years ago, may be true. But of this man we know nothing. His biography has not been written."

You are not being taken seriously because you keep arguing against the wrong Jesus as touched in "Arguing the wrong Jesus and the Jesus myth"

More over:

Irenaeus' Against Heresies (c 180 CE) documents the existence of a sect of Christianity led by Cerinthus who "represented Jesus as having not been born of a virgin, but as being the son of Joseph and Mary according to the ordinary course of human generation, while he nevertheless was more righteous, prudent, and wise than other men."

So Cerinthus was preaching a Jesus who was NOT a "water-walking, transfiguring, son of a ghost without a human father, who resurrected and ascended in a cloud after appearing to his disciples" but a man. No water walking, no transfiguring, having flesh and blood parents, and no freaking resurrection. And this is all in the 2nd freaking century! :mad:

Heck, even Paul argues against the virgin birth - twice: Romans 1:1-3 and Galatians 4:4. It is clear if you look at the oldest Greek copies on what his meaning is.

Even Albert Schweiter who held there was a man behind the myth stated:
"The Jesus of Nazareth (ie the Jesus of the Gospels) who came forward publicly as the Messiah, who preached the ethic of the Kingdom of God, who founded the Kingdom of Heaven upon earth, and died to give His work its final consecration, never had any existence. He is a figure designed by rationalism, endowed with life by liberalism, and clothed by modern theology in an historical garb.. - The Quest of the Historical Jesus
 
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....So Cerinthus was preaching a Jesus who was NOT a "water-walking, transfiguring, son of a ghost without a human father, who resurrected and ascended in a cloud after appearing to his disciples" but a man. No water walking, no transfiguring, having flesh and blood parents, and no freaking resurrection. And this is all in the 2nd freaking century! :mad:

Cerinthus was also preaching that Christ, as a dove, entered into Jesus when he was baptized and the Christ flew away after Jesus died.

Hippolytus Refutation of All Heresies 10.17
And Cerinthus maintains that, after Jesus' baptism, Christ came down in the form of a dove upon Him from the sovereignty that is above the whole circle of existence, and that then He proceeded to preach the unknown Father, and to work miracles.

And he asserts that, at the conclusion of the passion, Christ flew away from Jesus, but that Jesus suffered, and that Christ remained incapable of suffering, being a spirit of the Lord

Cerinthus Jesus Christ was a " birdman"--half man half dove or some other fraction.

Cerinthus Jesus and the bird Christ is just as non-historical as NT Jesus the water-walking transfigurer.

maximara said:
Heck, even Paul argues against the virgin birth - twice: Romans 1:1-3 and Galatians 4:4. It is clear if you look at the oldest Greek copies on what his meaning is.

But, you forget that in the Epistles a writer called Paul claimed he did not get his gospel from man or by man but from the resurrected Jesus.

Are you suggesting that the resurrected Jesus told Paul he [the Christ] was not born of a virgin?

The resurrected Christ must know whether or not he was born of a virgin.:jaw-dropp

maximara said:
Even Albert Schweiter who held there was a man behind the myth stated:
"The Jesus of Nazareth (ie the Jesus of the Gospels) who came forward publicly as the Messiah, who preached the ethic of the Kingdom of God, who founded the Kingdom of Heaven upon earth, and died to give His work its final consecration, never had any existence. He is a figure designed by rationalism, endowed with life by liberalism, and clothed by modern theology in an historical garb.. - The Quest of the Historical Jesus

Albert Schweitzer argued that Jesus was either literary fiction or an eschatological concept.

NT Jesus of Nazareth never had any existence in Albert Schweizter's Quest for the historical Jesus.
 
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The HJ argument is completely baseless and without historical evidence.

It is known that there is no historical evidence for the supposed Jesus of Nazareth, his family, the disciples/apostles and the characters called Paul.

But, there are far more historical problems with regards the Jesus of Nazareth stories.

Even the authors of the stories about Jesus are all without historical references and were falsely attributed to unknown writers of unknown date of authorship.

The NT represents the very worst as a credible source.

How was it possible that every supposed Christian writer had no historical details of the actual writers of their own Gospel?

Surely it must have been known when and who actually wrote the the original Gospels.


In "Church History3.39 attributed to Eusebius, we see the author making references to a supposed early Christian writer called Papias but this writer makes the same rejected false claims about the date and authorship of the Gospels.

In Church History 5.8 Eusebius quotes "Against Heresies" as another source for the date and authorship of the Gospels but again those dates and names of authors are false.

It is clear that the history of the supposed early Church and Gospel authors were fabricated.

So, in fact, we have no historical evidence for Jesus of Nazareth, his family, his disciples/apostles, Paul, the pre-70 Church, authors of the Gospels and the dates of authorship..

We have nothing but fiction, forgeries, false attribution.

This is precisely what I expected.

Jesus of Nazareth never had any existence.
 
We have nothing but fiction, forgeries, false attribution.

This is precisely what I expected.

Jesus of Nazareth never had any existence.

It must be gratifying that the evidence supports what you expected it to support <sarcasm>. This is what I regard as 'confirmation bias':

"Confirmation bias occurs from the direct influence of desire on beliefs. When people would like a certain idea or concept to be true, they end up believing it to be true. They are motivated by wishful thinking. This error leads the individual to stop gathering information when the evidence gathered so far confirms the views or prejudices one would like to be true".

https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/science-choice/201504/what-is-confirmation-bias
 
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