Sherkeu
Illuminator
Why do you think CNN can say men, not penis havers?
Report them. How insensitive to to ladies who have a penis!!
Do their lady erections not count?
Why do you think CNN can say men, not penis havers?
Medical professionals themselves are immune because they need to speak in science to do their jobs. There is NO clinical trial that is 'woke' in how it seeks out female participants.
But it seems that they are to speak differently to the public at large so that there will be 2 vocabularies in play so that no one need be de-legitimized of their chosen gender/sex identity.
The American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends that individuals with a cervix initiate cervical cancer screening at age 25 years and undergo primary human papillomavirus (HPV) testing every 5 years through age 65 years (preferred); if primary HPV testing is not available, then individuals aged 25 to 65 years should be screened with cotesting (HPV testing in combination with cytology) every 5 years or cytology alone every 3 years (acceptable) (strong recommendation ).
Why do you think CNN can say men, not penis havers?View attachment 42768
The study quoted says men https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamanetworkopen/fullarticle/2765654?resultClick=1CNN is a private institution that can use whatever language they want.
The study quoted says men https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamanetworkopen/fullarticle/2765654?resultClick=1
Precise language doesn't seem all that important thenThat would explain why, in both cases, CNN allowed the scientists to take the lead in what language they used.
That said, you do appear to have linked to a different paper entirely.
Precise language doesn't seem all that important then
The study was directly linked from this CNN article:
https://www.cnn.com/2020/05/07/health/coronavirus-semen-china-health/index.html
Also, the American Cancer Society who the cervix study we're discussing came from seem to think only men can get prostate cancer:View attachment 42770
Firstly, did you read the study? It was a study of, specifically, 38 cisgender men. What is imprecise about using the word "men" in that context?
Secondly, I'm not the person who is mocking medical professionals for the terminology they use. I'm the one who's finding it vaguely amusing that people who no doubt consider themselves generally pro-science are going down the "hur-de-hur, look at these woke libtards" route when the science in question uses precise and accurate language that doesn't match their particular biased bugbear of choice.
Well, that's not what you posted a cap of in post #840.
A) that's not what the picture you've attached says, and B) if you have a problem with that, then I suggest you take it up with them.
Secondly, I'm not the person who is mocking medical professionals for the terminology they use. I'm the one who's finding it vaguely amusing that people who no doubt consider themselves generally pro-science are going down the "hur-de-hur, look at these woke libtards" route when the science in question uses precise and accurate language that doesn't match their particular biased bugbear of choice.
Becuause women can have penises too.
I'm not mocking anyone[...]
- I'm questioning if such a precise language is necessary why didn't they use penis havers
Feel free to ask them.
It says the most common form of cancer for men is prostate cancer, not the most common form of cancer for prostate havers is prostate cancer.
I don't actually have a problem with the language used, I just thought you might have
How is that relevant to those 38 specific men who were the subject of that study?
- I'm questioning if such a precise language is necessary why didn't they use penis havers
Feel free to ask them.
And? That's not saying what you claimed it said - that only men can get prostate cancer.
Tell, me - if I say that the most common cause of death amongst obese people in having a heart attack, am I saying that only obese people have heart attacks? You're being silly and illogical in your desperate flailing to try to engineer some kind of gotcha.
Why?
The only bias I've seen so far is those medical professionals' differing definitions of "male" and "female", as was linked to above, perhaps you would like to comment on that? Especially since you seem to be so in favour of these - what you consider to be "precise and accurate" - definitions.
Because women with penises could unwittingly spread covid19 because of the imprecise language of the study and way its reported
You're the one saying such language is very important - why aren't you asking them?
It only mentioned men - is precise language important or not?
I'd say you were using imprecise language
Are you genuinely concerned about this, or are you still trying to engineer yourself that gotcha?
I'm the one who is mildly amused by the anti-science stance that some of the supposedly critical thinkers in this thread have, probably unwittingly, taken.