Historical Jesus

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So basically you need to resort to dumb dishonest arguing. Gotcha.

It is NOT dishonest for me to argue what I truly believe. Its also not dishonest for me to back it up with, you know, citations and evidence. I'm trying pare away all the superfluous, unnecessary BS, to simplify this to get at the core and important part.

If you're afraid to answer the questions, just say so.

ETA: Also, it is not dishonest to want to limit the answers to my questions.
 
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It is NOT dishonest for me to argue what I truly believe.

Except at this point you're not. It's just trying to frame what can't be said, because it contradicts your nonsense CT version, and you can't actually argue that part.

I'm trying pare away all the superfluous, unnecessary BS, to simplify this to get at the core and important part.

And there we go. The parts that you can't argue, because you don't know anything about, you just redefine as "superfluous, unnecessary BS" or ridicule as "hansplaining." Why bother actually supporting your dumb falsehoods, when you can just handwave away needing to support them, eh? :p

Gee, we totally didn't see that part before in, well, every single unsupportable piece of dumbassery from flat earth to 9/11 :p

If you're afraid to answer the question, just say so.

Right back at you, my dear dishonest BS peddler: if you're afraid to actually support your nonsense claims, just say so. Trying to decree what can't be said to challenge them is not it :p

ETA: Also, it is not dishonest to want to limit the answers to my questions.

ETA: yes, it is, if what you're trying to limit out is exactly what contradicts your misunderstanding based on a gross oversimplification. If your point only stands if things are kept oversimplified, and nobody dare mention any relevant extra parts, then you don't have a point and you're just doing dishonest arguing.
 
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Which Paul? The Epistles under the name of Paul were composed after stories of Jesus were already known in the Roman Empire.

The gospels are four different accounts written some thirty to seventy years after Jesus' death and all were dependent on embellished traditions which had come down from intervening generations. Paul was the earliest writer of the Jesus stories and they were NOT based upon witnessed historical events. He says so himself: "I received my message from no human source, and no one taught me. Instead, I received it by direct revelation from Jesus Christ". Galatians 1:12
 
Except at this point you're not. It's just trying to frame what can't be said, because it contradicts your dumbass CT version, and you can't actually argue that part.

CT version of what? Is this your Dan Brown obsession thingy coming out again?

And there we go. The parts that you can't argue, because you don't know anything about, you just redefine as "superfluous, unnecessary BS" or ridicule as "hansplaining." Why bother actually supporting your dumb falsehoods, when you can just handwave away needing to support them, eh? :p

There is there is a world of difference between "can't argue" and "consider irrelevant to my argument"

Gee, we totally didn't see that part before in, well, every single unsupportable piece of dumbassery from flat earth to 9/11 :p

Non sequitur. I am neither a flat earther, nor a 9/11 truther, as you would realise if you have spent any time whatsoever in threads on those subjects

Right back at you, my dear dishonest BS peddler: if you're afraid to actually support your nonsense claims, just say so. Trying to decree what can't be said to challenge them is not it :p

I have been supporting my claims, and again, I ask

FACT OR NOT: "The Council of Nicaea intended, among other things, to address the divinity of Jesus?

FACT OR NOT: "The Council of Nicaea issued the Nicean Creed, which did in fact result in the divinity of Jesus being settled?

FACT OR NOT: "The Nicean Creed contained a clear threat to anyone who would argue that Jesus was not divine?

THIS is all I am interested in, all I am debating. They are either true or they are not true.
 
I have been supporting my claims, and again, I ask

No you have not. You have just been trying to keep things vague and oversimplified, because otherwise your claims fall apart.

FACT OR NOT: "The Council of Nicaea intended, among other things, to address the divinity of Jesus?

"To address the divinity of Jesus" is something so vague as to be itself irrelevant. There were in fact several questions about Jesus's divinity, some of which would be addressed at Nicaea, some which they decided earlier, and some which wouldn't be decided yet.

And if your point only stands if you keep things that vague and oversimplified, you don't have one.

FACT OR NOT: "The Council of Nicaea issued the Nicean Creed, which did in fact result in the divinity of Jesus being settled?

NOT. First of all it's a composite question, kinda like "have you decided to stop beating your wife", but even then no, all the questions about Jesus's divinity wouldn't be answered for another few CENTURIES after Nicaea.

FACT OR NOT: "The Nicean Creed contained a clear threat to anyone who would argue that Jesus was not divine?

Technically NOT. The creed just said you can't be a Catholic otherwise, which by itself isn't much of a threat.

It's like if I told you that you can't be a Muslim if you don't read the Quran in Arabic. Well, do you feel threatened yet? If you didn't want to call yourself a Muslim in the first place, exactly what am I threatening you with there?

The actual threat came from the state enforcing that you have to be a Catholic, not from the creed.

THIS is all I am interested in, all I am debating. They are either true or they are not true.

No you're not. Because you've also claimed blatantly false stuff like that that's when they excluded stuff like Gnosticism. Which isn't answered by stuff oversimplified to the point of dumbassery like, 'but did they talk about the divinity of Jesus at all'?
 
Interestingly, his travelling companions are claimed to have seen nothing at all beyond Saul falling down on the road.

1. Well, Acts 9:7 actually makes them witnesses: "And the men who journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice but seeing no one." Yes, they didn't SEE Jesus, but then neither did Paul, but apparently they heard the same voice from heavens that Paul was hearing.

And even as far as seeing goes, the light shining down on Paul is written as having happened, not as something that only Paul saw. The wording is that a bright light actually shone down on him, not that Paul saw a bright light.

IMHO the whole episode is supposed to be a miracle with witnesses and all, so we can pretty safely discount it as just "didn't happen." There isn't much point in using those as witnesses either way.


2. The more important part though is that it directly contradicts Paul's own account in Galatians 1:

15. But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother's womb, and called me by his grace,
16. To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:
17. Neither went I up to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before me; but I went into Arabia, and returned again unto Damascus.

In Paul's account not only he wasn't on the way to Damascus when that revelation happened, he didn't go to Damascus any time after it either. He first went to preach in Arabia and only got to Damascus on the way back.

Note that he's probably going by the Roman names at that point, so a journey to Arabia actually meant going in the OPPOSITE direction of Damascus.
 
No you have not. You have just been trying to keep things vague and oversimplified, because otherwise your claims fall apart.

Simple is good

"To address the divinity of Jesus" is something so vague as to be itself irrelevant. There were in fact several questions about Jesus's divinity, some of which would be addressed at Nicaea, some which they decided earlier, and some which wouldn't be decided yet.

So that's a yes.

And if your point only stands if you keep things that vague and oversimplified, you don't have one.

NOT. First of all it's a composite question, kinda like "have you decided to stop beating your wife", but even then no, all the questions about Jesus's divinity wouldn't be answered for another few CENTURIES after Nicaea.
Nonetheless, the Creed does state that Jesus is divine.

Technically NOT. The creed just said you can't be a Catholic otherwise, which by itself isn't much of a threat.

It's like if I told you that you can't be a Muslim if you don't read the Quran in Arabic. Well, do you feel threatened yet? If you didn't want to call yourself a Muslim in the first place, exactly what am I threatening you with there?


Yeah, tell that to the Cathars, and the Muslims in the Holy land, and the Hugenots.
 
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1. Well, Acts 9:7 actually makes them witnesses: "And the men who journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice but seeing no one." Yes, they didn't SEE Jesus, but then neither did Paul, but apparently they heard the same voice from heavens that Paul was hearing.

Not quite: Acts 9:7 (NIV) "The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone".

Acts 22:9, (NAB) "My companions saw the light but did not hear the voice of the one who spoke to me".

Whatever Paul's followers heard or didn't hear is not clearly indicated. But, clearly, it wasn't the full dramatic scenario with the voice of Jesus that Paul himself is claiming.

It seems that some judicious editing is going on to make the story more than it was in actuality.
 
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Not quite: Acts 9:7 (NIV) "The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone".

Acts 22:9, (NAB) "My companions saw the light but did not hear the voice of the one who spoke to me".

Whatever Paul's followers heard or didn't hear is not clearly indicated. But, clearly, it wasn't the full dramatic scenario with the voice of Jesus that Paul himself is claiming.

It seems that some judicious editing is going on to make the story more than it was in actuality.

Paul himself is claiming no such thing, and in fact in the epistles that are attributed to him he makes contrary claims in more than one way. In what is at least taken as Paul's own account, he's not going to Damascus, he's actually going to go in the OPPOSITE direction, and he hasn't even started that journey until AFTER he had his epiphany. He's not getting baptized and initiated into Xianity by someone who was to Damascus before him; in fact he's adamant that he didn't even meet another emissary -- which is what "apostle" meant to him -- until AFTER he returned from Damascus. He has King Aretas try to capture specifically HIM, which makes no sense if at that point there's been another leader of the Xian community there for years and Paul is just another schmuck who only got baptized there. And so on.

And it's not just the journey that is suspect in Acts.

Basically both that and Galatians can't both be true. If Paul did actually say both versions, then Paul is pretty much a liar.
 
The gospels are four different accounts written some thirty to seventy years after Jesus' death and all were dependent on embellished traditions which had come down from intervening generations. Paul was the earliest writer of the Jesus stories and they were NOT based upon witnessed historical events. He says so himself: "I received my message from no human source, and no one taught me. Instead, I received it by direct revelation from Jesus Christ". Galatians 1:12

The NT Gospels are indeed four accounts but you have no historical evidence to show that they were dependent on embellished traditions from intervening generations.

Virtually every story in the NT is total fiction or implausible.

It is total nonsense that the character called Paul was the earliest writer of the Jesus stories because it is claimed in Galatians he had revelations from a supposed resurrected dead.

Galatians is evidence that the author is a fiction writer.

Based on your absurdity Jesus must have resurrected because he said so himself in the Gospels.

No dead person can give anyone any message at anytime in the history of mankind.

You also have no corroborative historical evidence at all to show that Paul was actually a figure of history in any century.

The Epistles under the name of Paul are products of fiction, forgeries and false attribution fabricated no earlier than at least the late 2nd century.
 
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I don't see how it follows that it means Paul never existed. It's very possible to tell people that you've been receiving messages from the dead if
A) you're hallucinating, or
B) lying, or
C) both.

The epistles attributed to Paul describe what nowadays we'd call schizophrenia syndromes. And I'm not just talking about hallucinating whole discussions with ghostly Jesus. (Because, yeah, it wasn't a one time thing!) He REPEATEDLY makes claims that we'd now call Cotard Syndrome, for example. He also bases his whole theology on what we'd now call delusions of reference.

The Paul of the epistles is either schizophrenic or he fakes it startlingly well for someone living almost 2000 years before we even had a name for those syndromes.

Did he exist? Maybe, maybe not. I'm not gonna say you shouldn't ask for evidence. But to say that he didn't exist because he was seeing ghosts, is pretty much saying that then my schizophrenic ex-GF also didn't exist :p
 
Hans, I can't even tell exactly what alleged claim allegedly by smartcooky you think you're ranting against, because I don't see where you ever said exactly what it is or where he actually claimed it. All I see him claiming is a set of yes/no answers to those three questions based on the Nicene creed, which you're acting like is not really his actual claim. So, what is, and where was that, and how was his boiling it down to those three questions not a concession of the errors any of his other previous claims that you seem to still be ranting against? And if that is in fact all he's claiming, then what's this other stuff you're ranting against from somewhere else, and why?

* * *

dejudge...

You don't have to be a biblical scholar to find out that there is no corroborative historical evidence anywhere to show that any so-called Pauline Epistle was written between 50-60 CE.
Well, you do at least need to have done more digging into the history of it than most people do. Most places we casually look, we get the general impression that the experts' consensus is that Paul wrote in the 50s, Mark was written around 90, and other canonical gospels were written after that up to sometime in the first quarter or so of the second century. If there is evidence that these dates are earlier than reality, it must be somewhere that most people don't look. (And what you've given us here does not make it appear that you have found anything to really contradict the general impression anyway.)

But in any case...
Historical evidence is necessary to argue for an HJ.
Simply going along with what would appear to be the general conclusion of historians rather than digging to find how that might be wrong is not participating in a conspiracy to support religious claims that that those conclusions don't even support anyway. You're treating the idea of slightly earlier origin of some books of the Bible as if it were an argument for historicity of Jesus, which it simply is not.

And on the timing of those books and your arguments that they are later than we thought...

The character called Saul/Paul is not found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, the works of Philo, Josephus, Tacitus, Suetonius and Pliny the younger.
There's no reason why he would be.
  • The Dead Sea Scrolls belonged to a separate community that didn't care about what the people we would now call Christians were doing or saying. Jesus and the gospels aren't in there either. It's Old Testament stuff (their version of the Old Testament). There's a bit or two that might mention Christians, but from an outsider's cursory point of view.
  • Philo died in 0050.
  • Josephus wasn't concerned to dig for what would have been such obscure details of the inner workings of the doom cults beyond just barely mentioning that they existed. Even someone who accepted the Testimonium Flavianum as real wouldn't have any reason to expect him to have ever had anything to say about Paul.
  • Tacitus and Suetonius didn't care about who the big names in Christianity way off in the east were or the content of any arguments between them (which is all the Epistles were), because they were writing about Rome. They only mentioned that Christians even existed when that was part of one of the stories about Nero.
  • Plinius was a lawyer who wasn't very familiar with Christians and wrote about them only to ask what to do with them in court. That's not exactly a thorough analysis of the thoughts of contrasting Christian authors/leaders.

People who argue Pauline Epistles were composed between 50-60 CE generally use Acts of the Apostles a known work of fiction in which Saul/Paul's conversion was fabricated .
The allegedly fictional nature of the writing (whether or not it also included pieces of reality along with the fiction) does not affect its timing.

It must also be noted that even the author of Acts made no claim at all that Saul/Paul wrote any Epistles to any Church anywhere and there is not a reference to a single verse from any Epistle in Acts.
OK. Why would they have needed to talk about that? The Epistles were letters to church leaders. Acts is about the act(ion)s of a group of people including Paul. Why does a book about stuff that some group of people did need to mention that one of them once wrote a letter to somebody else who isn't even in the story?

Christian writers in the 2nd century like Justin Martyr, Theophilus, Aristides, Athenagoras, Tatian and Municius Felix had no idea that there was a character called Saul/Paul and wrote nothing at all about him or used his Epistles.
This might be getting somewhere... if we have any reason to believe that Christians at that time, particularly those who weren't in the churches which the letters were addressed to, would/should necessarily have been circulating them and mentioning them in their own writings. What fact that I'm unaware of contradicts the possibility that the letters had been written by then but just weren't so famous yet, or were known but didn't seem to need to be commented on?

The Wikipedia article you provided is riddled with baseless claims, dates and propaganda to support the HJ argument.
OK, that's just flat-out either lying or delusional (possibly of the paranoid/conspiratorial kind?). No matter how many wrong claims it might contain (none of which you have debunked yet), it's perfectly clearly not trying "to support the HJ argument".

The earliest existing manuscripts of the so-called Pauline Epistles P46 are dated by paleography circa 175-225 CE.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papyrus_46
There is simply no existing manuscripts of Acts dated to 90AD. The earliest manuscripts of Acts are dated by paleography to around the mid 3rd century and later.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papyrus_45
One of those is described as "early", and the other is described as "one of the oldest". Neither is described as the earliest/oldest one.

To debunk an earlier date, you would need to find where that came from and counter that, not just find something else that happens to be a bit later.

Saul/Paul is a total fiction character fabricated as a witness to the non-historical resurrection.
Claiming that somebody who was never supposed to have witnessed that event was invented to be an alleged witness to that event does not help your credibility.

Except it is my understanding that Marcion of Sinope in and around 150CE had created a biblical canon which included Luke and half of the Epistles. And others in this thread have said that by 150AD, Marcion was considered a heretic. How do we square this?
If Marcion was a heretic then he would not have gLuke and Epistles which completely contradict his teaching.
There is nothing stopping anybody from saying that a book is "canon" while not agreeing with the contents of that book (especially if the contradicting bits of that book weren't in it yet at the time and the original core had no such contradiction... but also even if they were and it did). We're surrounded by that phenomenon all the time today.

It is total nonsense that the character called Paul was the earliest writer of the Jesus stories because it is claimed in Galatians he had revelations from a supposed resurrected dead.
Those two things don't contradict each other.

You also have no corroborative historical evidence at all to show that Paul was actually a figure of history in any century.

The Epistles under the name of Paul are products of fiction, forgeries and false attribution
From what I've seen before, most historians say about half of the Epistles are later fakes but not the other half. Whoever wrote the other half, we might as well call that person "Paul". What do you know of that contradicts that?

The Wikipedia article dated ACTS to be around 90AD. I'd like to see a timeline that lists probable dates for each of the books of the New Testament and cites for each.
You can put together a list yourself. Each book of the New Testament has its own Wikipedia page, typically with the generally accepted date of origin in the first sentence or in a little box off to the right and several inches down. And the one on the Epistles covers all of them at once.
 
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You can put together a list yourself. Each book of the New Testament has its own Wikipedia page, typically with the generally accepted date of origin in the first sentence or in a little box off to the right and several inches down. And the one on the Epistles covers all of them at once.

Thanks for your post. I guess the best way to do this is with a spreadsheet with years for columns or rows and books on the other and then put entries in the appropriate boxes.

Pretty time consuming though, considering I think the whole thing is a fabrication. What difference does it really make if the story was made up in 50AD or 250AD. It's still phoney.
 
I’ve just had a quick look at the Jesus page on Wikipedia and something immediately stuck out to me “... Virtually all modern scholars of antiquity agree that Jesus existed historically....” not historians? Why is this?
 
@Delvo
Actually, while I don't agree with his ideas, dejudge does have a bit of a point there. The dating of the epistles and generally the timeline does partially rely on Acts, as well as bits and pieces from the epistles themselves to get a timeline.

E.g., Paul's escape from Damascus to escape capture by Aretas IV Philopatris is set to be no later than 40 AD, because that's when Aretas dies. Any later and it wouldn't be a king Aretas to flee from.

Some of it is even iffier. E.g., Paul is said to have appealed to Nero and to have been executed by Nero. (NB, there is NO evidence for that even in the bible or contemporary church fathers. The martyrdom of Paul only starts being talked about in the year 110 or so.) Cf Romans, he spent at least two years in Rome before writing that, so that puts an earliest date of 56 AD for Romans. Since, you know, even if he arrived in Rome the same day Nero got crowned, that can't be earlier than 54 AD, or it would still be Claudius. (And frankly, given Claudius's behaviour in his latest years, appealing to HIM would have been the dumbest idea ever.)

Etc.

The various epistles are dated as basically in between such landmark events from them or from Acts. Like, basically, this one seems to be somewhere between event X and event Y, so it must be between years A and B.

That however does assume that they are genuine. If not, they can be written at any time after those events just as well.

Basically imagine I show you a letter written by Roman centurion Bigus Dickus in which he writes about following Caesar through Gaul. Well, if it's authentic, it has to have been written somewhere between 58 BC and 50 BC. But if it's not, then it can be written any time after just as well. You can say that my fiction is set between 58 BC and 50 BC, but not when it was written. In fact, I could have written it yesterday evening.

The same applies to Paul's epistles, really. IF you consider them all to be forgeries (and I'm not saying I agree there, but anyway...) then you don't really have much in the way of anchoring dates for when they were written.
 
Well, you do at least need to have done more digging into the history of it than most people do. Most places we casually look, we get the general impression that the experts' consensus is that Paul wrote in the 50s, Mark was written around 90, and other canonical gospels were written after that up to sometime in the first quarter or so of the second century. If there is evidence that these dates are earlier than reality, it must be somewhere that most people don't look. (And what you've given us here does not make it appear that you have found anything to really contradict the general impression anyway.)

The term "general impression" is rather irrelevant I am dealing with evidence not the general impression of plenty people.

Plenty biblical experts believe Jesus was God's son born of a virgin and was raised from the dead on the third day and pray to him for their salvation in order to go to heaven.

Perhaps you are not aware that plenty biblical experts are Christians.

In any event, you have not, will not and cannot ever provide any actual historical evidence to support the baseless claims of the general consensus that "Paul wrote in the 50's.

[
There's no reason why he would be. The Dead Sea Scrolls belonged to a separate community that didn't care about what the people we would now call Christians were doing or saying. Jesus and the gospels aren't in there either.....

How could Jesus of Nazareth, his disciples and Saul/Paul be in anything when none of them actually existed??

You will never ever find any character called Jesus of Nazareth, his disciples and Paul in any historical writing or manuscripts before the Fall of the Jewish Temple c 70 CE. None whatsoever.


The allegedly fictional nature of the writing (whether or not it also included pieces of reality along with the fiction) does not affect its timing.

You still cannot provide any historical evidence at all to show that a person named Paul actually wrote Epistles to Churches in the 50's.

Not even Acts of the Apostles states that Saul/Paul wrote letters to any Church anywhere.



From what I've seen before, most historians say about half of the Epistles are later fakes but not the other half. Whoever wrote the other half, we might as well call that person "Paul". What do you know of that contradicts that?

All the historians who claim Saul/Paul is a figure of history and wrote Epistles in the 50's have never ever provided any historical corroborative evidence. Never.

You seem to have no idea that Scholars have argued that Paul was not a figure of history.

There is an abundance of evidence that the so-called Saul/Paul and Pauline writings were unknown by multiple Christian and Non-Christian writers up to at least the end of the 2nd century.

If most historians say half of the Epistles are fakes then it should be obvious the authors of the Epistles were really unknown.
 
There's an unavoidable and unacceptable issue regarding 'biblical scholars'. The vast majority are Christians. They are looking for and interpreting artifacts to prove the narrative. It's simply is not analogous to the average historical scholar. This isn't to say they are dishonest. Only that they have a predisposition.

And how does one evaluate ancient texts that were possibly, even probably were intended to deceive when they were created?
 
Hans, I can't even tell exactly what alleged claim allegedly by smartcooky you think you're ranting against, because I don't see where you ever said exactly what it is or where he actually claimed it. All I see him claiming is a set of yes/no answers to those three questions based on the Nicene creed, which you're acting like is not really his actual claim. So, what is, and where was that, and how was his boiling it down to those three questions not a concession of the errors any of his other previous claims that you seem to still be ranting against? And if that is in fact all he's claiming, then what's this other stuff you're ranting against from somewhere else, and why?

I am also at a loss to understand why he's getting so ranty. It seems to me that he wants to make it more complicated than it really is in order to argue against any view he does not hold and avoid answering giving simple and direct answers to simple and direct questions.

Yes the First Council did more than just decide the divinity of Jesus; yes, the divinity of Jesus was discussed and ruled on other occasions both before and after the First Council, but it was not a whole lot more complicated than that. The entire Nicene Creed (as issued in 325AD, and as translated into English), is only about 175 words in four sentences, and all of it talks about only four things - three are what they believe in and the fourth is a threat.

1. That God is the creator God
"We believe in one God, the Father Almighty, Maker of all things visible and invisible."

2. That Jesus is divine
"And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, begotten of the Father the only-begotten; that is, of the essence of the Father, God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father; by whom all things were made both in heaven and on earth; who for us men, and for our salvation, came down and was incarnate and was made man; he suffered, and the third day he rose again, ascended into heaven; from thence he shall come to judge the quick and the dead."

3. That the third Person of the triune God is a thing.
"And in the Holy Ghost."

4. That anyone who says otherwise re 1 to 3 above is a heretic
"But those who say: 'There was a time when he was not;' and 'He was not before he was made;' and 'He was made out of nothing,' or 'He is of another substance' or 'essence,' or 'The Son of God is created,' or 'changeable,' or 'alterable'—they are condemned by the holy catholic and apostolic Church."

Apparently, saying this makes me a dumbass, Dan Brown fanboy conspiracy theorist... go figure!
 
There is no historical evidence, zero historical corroborative evidence, to support that Saul/Paul was a figure of history and that Epistles under the name of Paul was written before the 2nd century.

The supposed character called Paul and Epistles were manufactured no earlier than the mid 2nd century or later.

I still don't know why this topic gets you so bent out of shape.

I am an atheist. I don't care if there was a real Paul/Saul or a real jesus because I DONT GIVE A RATS PATOOTIE.

Why is this so difficult to get into your head?

I consider a composite jesus likely and an actual Paul/Saul likely on balance. But I can't be bothered to give a flying **** either way.

My engagement with theists revolves around the incessant attempts to impose their beliefs on everyone.

In that regard, you self present as just another evangelist who happens to promote a different idea. Religiously. That is how you appear to me.

Not buying your religion any more than any of the others.
 
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