Archie Gemmill Goal
Banned
- Joined
- Nov 18, 2015
- Messages
- 8,324
The problem I have with this is not whether the Falkland Islanders may be considered indigenous, but rather with the definition of colonisation being used. The Falklands were not colonised, in the same sense as the majority of the British Empire, by the subjugation of an indigenous population, but rather populated through settlement of land that was previously uninhabited. They aren't therefore a colony in the same sense of the world as, for example, Australia. So I'd like to understand how Argentina's claim on the Falklands is stronger than, for example, the UK's claim on Iceland, as the nearest occupied territory to a land that was unoccupied before its occupation by inhabitants of another country.
Dave
Hang on... where have I said anything about Argentina's claim on the Falklands being stronger than anything at all? The only mention I made of Argentina was to demonstrate the problem with saying 'our people are there so it's ours'
Yes, the Falklands was not colonised by subjugating an indigenous people. Luckily there weren't any or it would have been. But that doesn't make it any less a colony or any less colonisation. It makes it slightly less bad, but I disagree with the entire idea of going round the world finding bits of land and claiming them as yours because you have the wealth and military might to make it so.
The indigenous people thing is a side discussion but it's actually a little sick-making to think that some people actually think the Falklanders are on a par with Maoris or Native Americans or other actual indigenous populations. My only saving grace in that one is that I don't actually believe that they do. They just want to win an argument.