Ziggurat
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2003
- Messages
- 61,631
That makes no sense. The only way to explain the conclusion that the effects of testosterone are partially determined by culture is to assume that the effects of testosterone are not determined by culture?
You've even lost track of what it is YOU claimed.
No. The only way to conclude that only testosterone levels relative to the average for your sex matters is to conclude that testosterone is the only relevant variable.
That also makes no sense, if there are no cross-cultural differences then culture determines nothing.
Differences between the sexes, not differences between cultures. You made the same mistake before. If none of the differences between the sexes are cross-cultural, them all of the differences between the sexes are caused by culture, because any differences between the sexes not caused by culture will exist across cultures.
Biology is cross-cultural but that doesn't mean that its behavioral effect is cross-cultural.
Some of them are. That's a logical requirement if biology affects behavior.
Look, this is hardly contentious or anything, see for example here:
Nobody is arguing that culture doesn't affect behavior. No one is even arguing that culture doesn't affect the behavioral differences between men and women.
Physical strength is not a behavioral difference.
But it leads rather naturally to behavioral differences. Across cultures. For rather obvious reasons. A strong person is more likely to pick a fight with a weak person than a weak person is to pick a fight with a strong person. That observation doesn't depend on culture. Hell, it doesn't even depend on species.
Maybe you somewhere lost the plot along the way, but the contention under consideration is whether there exist universal gender differences (ie differences in behavior associated with one sex which are invariant across cultures), a contention which you supported by bringing up that testosterone affects behavior. However the mere fact that testosterone affects behavior is not sufficient to support that contention, in order to support that contention it also needs to be shown that 1) testosterone affects behavior differently in men and women and 2) that it affects behavior in the same way across cultures.
Of course testosterone affects men differently than women, because the level of testosterone makes a difference to the effect, and the levels in men and women are different. How is that not obvious to you? And again, the effects are cross-cultural. They show up even in early infancy. They show up even when the person is socialized from birth believing they are the opposite gender AND sex (which is different than being trans, where they think their gender doesn't match their sex).