No you haven't. All you've provided evidence of is that there is at least one journalist whose reports did not include any famine conditions in Germany. Without any sound argument as to how that would even relevant in the first place.
I know you do, but that doesn't make it so. Rational people, on the other hand, call that a "non-sequitur".
If you want to claim that "economic system introduced by Stalin in the years after 1929" caused famine, then you are free to make a list of years from, say, 1850 to, say, 1980 and for each year mark whether the year had the "economic system introduced by Stalin in the years after 1929" and whether the year had "food shortage/famine", and then see how your two variables are related.