Definitions in dictionaries are often given in an order corresponding to the frequency that they are used. I believe 1a and 1b are far more commonly used and the highlighted part above is incorrect in my opinion. Perhaps more importantly, it was clear from context the sense in which both Grinder and I used "innocent". Your insistence that we are confused because we're not using your definition is not exactly sporting and I've given you multiple citations supporting my usage. Have you looked at them? Here's one that specifically mentions OJ.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/acquittal
whoanellie, thanks for your patience in this discussion. I apologize if my responses sometime seem impolite. I should like to indicate that the confusion is in the use of the word "innocent" with differing meanings by many of us, without being clear which meaning is meant in a particular situation.
Here is the definition you cite:
Acquittal
Definition
At the end of a criminal trial, a finding by a judge or jury that a defendant is not guilty.
An acquittal signifies that a prosecutor failed to prove his or her case beyond a reasonable doubt, not that a defendant is innocent. Thus, a person may be acquitted of a crime but found civilly liable in a civil case regarding that same crime, e.g. O.J. Simpson,
because civil cases have a lower burden of proof than criminal cases.
Here are my comments:
1. The definition is primarily of "acquittal" which is a synonym for "judgment of not guilty" in the US and in Italy.
2. While I do not mean to be unnecessarily argumentative, the word "innocent" is NOT defined in this paragraph; it is used in one of its meanings, which may be rendered as: "did not commit the criminal act". This use of innocent may sometimes be used with a qualifier for clarity, such as "actually innocent" or "factually innocent", for example, in the context of convicted persons who claim to be innocent and seek to be exonerated.
3. The paragraph only applies to US law with respect to the mention of civil cases. As I have posted previously, in Italy, civil cases which run concurrently with criminal proceedings have essentially the same burden of proof, CPP Article 654. That is, the "binding effect" provision means that if there is a final acquittal or a final conviction in the criminal case, that is also the effect on the civil case: acquittal means the accused is not liable, while conviction means the accused is liable.
Italian law (CPP Article 652) also provides that a final criminal judgment of acquittal has binding effect releasing the accused from paying damages, as long as the specification of the acquittal is: the criminal act did not occur, the accused did not commit the criminal act, or the accused carried out the act to perform a duty or the exercise a legal right (for example, self-defense).
So I think that your citation, although an excellent one in relation to US law, actually does not define "innocent" or "innocence" and it certainly does not explain Italian law, which is different from US law in important ways.