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For Kapyong: Defending a historical Jesus

Well, in the second paragraph you have answered why: "Of course, Paul could be lying or creating fiction, or having a hallucination, or it could be a later interpolation."

More reliable sources than Paul have created fictive meetings that never happened. Plato, for example, is a respected philosopher and we know more about him that about Paul. Yet not only he creates a fictive philosopher Timaeus, but writes whole dialogues (note the plural), between him, Solon and Socrates. Dialogues which we know never happened, because there's about one century between Solon's death and Socrates's birth.
Even given that, wouldn't the most parsimonious reason that Paul mentions meeting James is because he actually met him? It certainly seems to represent a prima facie case for the existence of James, even if it is possible for Paul to be (for example) lying. AFAIK every scholar who believes that Paul wrote the "James" passage believes that it was because there was an actual James to meet.
 
Well, mainly because Paul's not writing normal letters. ("The weather in Corinth is lovely, wish you were here";)) He's writing epistles. It's more akin to what nowadays you'd call writing a paper, except, of course, it didn't have to be held to the same academic standards. Everything in there is there to make a point, or address a point.

He doesn't even say much about himself, except when it's in some way relevant to the point he's addressing. And even then he's often more like telling some metaphorical fiction than the truth. E.g., he was shipwrecked and spent three days in the deep... hmm, where have we heard THAT particular story before? Oh right, Book Of Jonas.

He doesn't even mention Peter much, except when he makes a strawman sockpuppet out of him. It's only in there when he needs him there.

It's not some inconsequential "oh, the wife says hi. And guess who we met at the market? It was James!" letter from abroad. If that were the case, sure, I might be less circumspect. But when some characters and events are there as part of the rethoric to support a point, and convince some people who presumably thought otherwise, then there is much more of a motivation to... shall we say... distort the truth a little.

So, yeah, I wouldn't take Paul as gospel ;)

THAT said, personally I'm inclined to provisionally go with Paul having met SOMEONE called James anyway, just because that's not the important part. If he met an actual relative of Jesus or not, or hell, even a disciple of Jesus from before he got nailed, that's the important part for that paragraph. Any other James, well, it's not very significant. That was a relatively common name too, so by sheer chance he met SOMEONE named James at some point or another.
 
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Well, mainly because Paul's not writing normal letters. ("The weather in Corinth is lovely, wish you were here";)) He's writing epistles. It's more akin to what nowadays you'd call writing a paper, except, of course, it didn't have to be held to the same academic standards. Everything in there is there to make a point, or address a point.

He doesn't even say much about himself, except when it's in some way relevant to the point he's addressing. And even then he's often more like telling some metaphorical fiction than the truth. E.g., he was shipwrecked and spent three days in the deep... hmm, where have we heard THAT particular story before? Oh right, Book Of Jonas.

He doesn't even mention Peter much, except when he makes a strawman sockpuppet out of him. It's only in there when he needs him there.

It's not some inconsequential "oh, the wife says hi. And guess who we met at the market? It was James!" letter from abroad. If that were the case, sure, I might be less circumspect. But when some characters and events are there as part of the rethoric to support a point, and convince some people who presumably thought otherwise, then there is much more of a motivation to... shall we say... distort the truth a little.

So, yeah, I wouldn't take Paul as gospel ;)

THAT said, personally I'm inclined to provisionally go with Paul having met SOMEONE called James anyway, just because that's not the important part. If he met an actual relative of Jesus or not, or hell, even a disciple of Jesus from before he got nailed, that's the important part for that paragraph. Any other James, well, it's not very significant. That was a relatively common name too, so by sheer chance he met SOMEONE named James at some point or another.

It's with James that I think things get interesting. I think it's quite plausible that James had a little cult to which he was preaching his message. And like a David Icke, he was telling his followers that they had to be careful with this material, it's very dangerous. Dangerous enough that his brother got nailed up over it. (Except that he was making up the brother bit as it made the message more compelling. Who was going to check?) Along comes Saul who makes fun of the little cult until his "enlightening" and suddenly he takes it and runs amok with it.

Is this the most likely scenario? Probably not, but given the lack of evidence for Jesus, it certainly isn't impossible. Enough to cause doubt on Jesus existence?

Ultimately: Jesus actual existence (or lack thereof) is irrelevent to Christianity today, given that everything about it has been run through Paul's filter. Which is why I really don't understand why people get such a bee in their bonnet over it.
 
So to repeat – what happened to the evidence for Jesus?

Why has the evidence still not been produced?

Instead of evidence, we get a load of “excellent” nonsense about imaginary non-existent gospels called Q, M and L.

Lets cut to the chase – the problem with the HJ case is that the claimed evidence really all derives from the bible. And the bible is just about as far from being a credible reliable source of any evidence of a human Jesus, as it's possible to imagine.

It needs something vastly better than the unarguably fictional beliefs of the bible.

But unfortunately it seems there is actually nothing else except the bible (see footnote).

The problem with your style of argument, and with mythicism in general, is the exact same question can be asked of you: where is the evidence of a non-corporeal Jesus?

This isn't about shifting burden of proof; I'm not arguing for a historical Jesus or absolutely wedded to the idea. Instead, the issue at stake is how one interprets the core sources, ie the books of the New Testament, patristic writings, apocrypha, etc, to trace back the origins of Christianity, as a matter of history.

The question of whether Jesus 'really existed' or not is not immediately crucial to reconstructing the origins of Christianity if one chooses to adopt a skeptical, secular perspective; what would actually be crucial is tracing the evolution of religious ideas and texts in time and space, investigating the personalities involved and backtracking the growth of Christian churches to their apparent origins in 1st Century Palestine.

Those religious ideas and texts revolve around Jesus-belief encompassing a set of sayings, parables, moral teachings, miracles, life story episodes, theological conceptions and soon enough orthodoxies, heterodoxies and heresies, which evolved historically.

This means taking the sources, including the NT texts, seriously for what they are: religious texts. But also taking the diversity seriously. There are not that many religions where four variations on a core story emerge in a fairly short space of time, and are attested to as 'gospels' fairly rapidly.

The synoptic problem points to a common set of sources that preceded the synoptic gospels, much revolving around a collection of sayings, teachings and parables, with some overlap with non-canonical sources (like the Gospel of Thomas). These sayings and teachings were enough to evolve a new religion out of Judaism, so they have at least some significance, whatever one thinks of Christianity as a whole.

The variations in the texts (gospels) point to a common oral tradition as a source for at least part of the texts, and once redacted into literary form, the texts display at least some Aramaicisms, which supports the advertised origins in 1st Century Palestine, something that is also supported by an emphasis on halakhic disputes and thus Judaic religious law.

All of these sayings and teachings are attributed to a certain Jesus, a not uncommon 1st Century Palestinian Jewish name. But the texts also mention a variety of other figures - a number of apostles and acolytes who are followed by others, including the gospel-writers. We can rule out the three synoptic gospel-writers as the sole authors of this material, not least because gThomas refutes such a theory, due to the overlap in content: this stuff was circulating more widely and was evidently not confined to a literary form from the outset.

The catch for mythicism's typical mode of argumentation is that such material cannot be dismissed as "fiction" since it conveys theological, moral and legal ideas. Those ideas came from somewhere and came from somebody or several somebodies.

It's perfectly possible the sayings and teachings were crowd-sourced, but these were for the time, apparently powerful religious ideas, and many were also innovative for that era. One would have to explain either why very anonymous teachers cohered together into the supposed Jesus tradition, or why slightly less anonymous teachers (say, the disciples and gospel-writers) forewent the credit for authoring the ideas. The most parsimonious explanation is that there really was a teacher named Jesus, some of whose sayings were recorded by his disciples and eventual followers. This is how the followers presented things subsequently.

It would be very nice to have external confirmation of this, but we also appear to lack external disconfirmation of this account.

None of this precludes another explanation, nor does it make sense of the miracles and ancient biography components of the gospels (both of which are much better candidates for literary fabrication). But this is why posters like Argumemnon, Craig B and myself are HJ-minimalists.
 
It's with James that I think things get interesting. I think it's quite plausible that James had a little cult to which he was preaching his message. And like a David Icke, he was telling his followers that they had to be careful with this material, it's very dangerous. Dangerous enough that his brother got nailed up over it. (Except that he was making up the brother bit as it made the message more compelling. Who was going to check?) Along comes Saul who makes fun of the little cult until his "enlightening" and suddenly he takes it and runs amok with it.

Is this the most likely scenario? Probably not, but given the lack of evidence for Jesus, it certainly isn't impossible. Enough to cause doubt on Jesus existence?

Ultimately: Jesus actual existence (or lack thereof) is irrelevent to Christianity today, given that everything about it has been run through Paul's filter. Which is why I really don't understand why people get such a bee in their bonnet over it.

Well, that's largely my position: whether it started from A guy called Jesus or not, Paul and the gospel writers don't make it easy to reconstruct one.
 
The problem with your style of argument, and with mythicism in general, is the exact same question can be asked of you: where is the evidence of a non-corporeal Jesus?

Your question is hopelessly absurd.

It should be obvious that there is never any historical evidence of fiction characters.

It is those who argue that Jesus did exist who MUST provide their historical evidence but they cannot and never will.

Once no historical evidence is presented then it can be argued for infinity that Jesus was a character of fiction who never ever existed.

All the stories of Jesus are fiction or implausible from conception to ascension.

Jesus was a fiction character based on the abundance of fiction in all apologetic sources.
 
... fiction characters ... character of fiction ... fiction or implausible ... fiction character ... abundance of fiction ...
See my comments cited in #792 et seq. Your post illustrates magnificently the problems that arise when one applies the term "fiction" to such religious works. Not all things that are not factually true, are on that account "fiction".
 
Even given that, wouldn't the most parsimonious reason that Paul mentions meeting James is because he actually met him? It certainly seems to represent a prima facie case for the existence of James, even if it is possible for Paul to be (for example) lying. AFAIK every scholar who believes that Paul wrote the "James" passage believes that it was because there was an actual James to meet.

What nonsense!!! Belief is not historical evidence.

The writer called Paul also claimed he received information from Jesus after he resurrected and that he was a witness that God raised Jesus [the Lord from heaven] from dead.

God does not even exist!!! There was no resurrection.

The letters under the name of Paul are major sources of fiction regarding Jesus and the Apostles.

Jesus was a fiction character in the entire NT.
 
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THAT said, personally I'm inclined to provisionally go with Paul having met SOMEONE called James anyway, just because that's not the important part.
James was a pillar of the early church, and Paul apparently took the gospel message that he got from the heavenly Jesus in order for James to ratify (which seems odd, since James in that case apparently trumps the heavenly Jesus). So it was a big deal to Paul.

But from a more philosophical aspect, how do you even get to "provisionally", given what you've written earlier about people making things up and the need for corroboration, etc?
 
T 1. The problem with your style of argument, and with mythicism in general, is the exact same question can be asked of you: where is the evidence of a non-corporeal Jesus?
2. This isn't about shifting burden of proof; I'm not arguing for a historical Jesus or absolutely wedded to the idea. Instead, the issue at stake is how one interprets the core sources, ie the books of the New Testament, patristic writings, apocrypha, etc, to trace back the origins of Christianity, as a matter of history.

3. The question of whether Jesus 'really existed' or not is not immediately crucial to reconstructing the origins of Christianity if one chooses to adopt a skeptical, secular perspective; what would actually be crucial is tracing the evolution of religious ideas and texts in time and space, investigating the personalities involved and backtracking the growth of Christian churches to their apparent origins in 1st Century Palestine.

Those religious ideas and texts revolve around Jesus-belief encompassing a set of sayings, parables, moral teachings, miracles, life story episodes, theological conceptions and soon enough orthodoxies, heterodoxies and heresies, which evolved historically.

This means taking the sources, including the NT texts, seriously for what they are: religious texts. But also taking the diversity seriously. There are not that many religions where four variations on a core story emerge in a fairly short space of time, and are attested to as 'gospels' fairly rapidly.

The synoptic problem points to a common set of sources that preceded the synoptic gospels, much revolving around a collection of sayings, teachings and parables, with some overlap with non-canonical sources (like the Gospel of Thomas). These sayings and teachings were enough to evolve a new religion out of Judaism, so they have at least some significance, whatever one thinks of Christianity as a whole.

The variations in the texts (gospels) point to a common oral tradition as a source for at least part of the texts, and once redacted into literary form, the texts display at least some Aramaicisms, which supports the advertised origins in 1st Century Palestine, something that is also supported by an emphasis on halakhic disputes and thus Judaic religious law.

All of these sayings and teachings are attributed to a certain Jesus, a not uncommon 1st Century Palestinian Jewish name. But the texts also mention a variety of other figures - a number of apostles and acolytes who are followed by others, including the gospel-writers. We can rule out the three synoptic gospel-writers as the sole authors of this material, not least because gThomas refutes such a theory, due to the overlap in content: this stuff was circulating more widely and was evidently not confined to a literary form from the outset.

The catch for mythicism's typical mode of argumentation is that such material cannot be dismissed as "fiction" since it conveys theological, moral and legal ideas. Those ideas came from somewhere and came from somebody or several somebodies.

It's perfectly possible the sayings and teachings were crowd-sourced, but these were for the time, apparently powerful religious ideas, and many were also innovative for that era. One would have to explain either why very anonymous teachers cohered together into the supposed Jesus tradition, or why slightly less anonymous teachers (say, the disciples and gospel-writers) forewent the credit for authoring the ideas. The most parsimonious explanation is that there really was a teacher named Jesus, some of whose sayings were recorded by his disciples and eventual followers. This is how the followers presented things subsequently.

It would be very nice to have external confirmation of this, but we also appear to lack external disconfirmation of this account.

None of this precludes another explanation, nor does it make sense of the miracles and ancient biography components of the gospels (both of which are much better candidates for literary fabrication). But this is why posters like Argumemnon, Craig B and myself are HJ-minimalists.


OK, if you are going to talk about "the problem with my style of argument", then the first thing to note in your first highlighted sentence above (i.e., "1"), is that I am not proposing any "mythicism". I have no idea whether Jesus was mythical or not. And I could not put (and never have put) any notional odds on it, neither 0%, or 100%, nor any %age in between. So I definitely do not need to do as you say "(provide you with) the evidence of a non-corporeal Jesus" - I have no obligation whatsoever to do that (I am not claiming he was a myth).

So that statement from you in highlight 1, is simply 100% wrong. The same question burden does not fall on me. I am not claiming Jesus was a myth (I have no strong opinion on whether he was, or was not, a myth). All I am claiming is that the evidence presented so far (e.g. by bible scholars such as Bart Ehrman) is unconvincing in the extreme.

Highlight 2 - I was replying specifically to Gdon who has specifically already told us that he is a Chrsitian and believes Jesus was real. And what I said was that he (Gdon) is trying to shift the burden of providing proof evidence, when says that I must provide some alternative myth theory for Jesus. I have no obligation to do any such thing (although many other people have done exactly that, both here in these recent HJ threads, and in countless HJ-sceptic books … so there are plenty of myth theories, though none of them from me).

The burden of proof evidence rests entirely upon those who say they believe Jesus was more likely than not to have been a real person ... their burden is simply to tell us what they are relying upon as their evidence. Gdon has just told us that he takes the gosples and letters of the bible to be his evidence for believing Jesus was real ... i.e. good enough evidence to conclude greater than 50% probability (that's what it means to say you believe on the balance of evidence that he was probably real) ... all that I am saying about that, is that such biblical writing is not in fact evidence of a human Jesus ever known to any of those biblical writers at all.

Highlight 3 - and I think I will stop at this 3rd highlight (without reading the rest of your reply in any detail) because there is more than enough to be going on with in these three points (though we have been over all 3 points at least 1000 times before in these threads ... literally 1000 times or more!); we are not arguing about quote "The question of .... reconstructing the origins of Christianity"! ... nobody is disputing that people who we now call "Christians" existed at some early date (e.g. 1st century), and that they believed a figure known as Iesous/Yehoshua (i.e. "Jesus" in 12th century English) had once been the miraculous messiah. That is not any part of any dispute here ...

... what is in dispute is whether or not the material claimed as evidence (claimed mainly by bible scholars, the Church, and Christian writers in general), is good enough to conclude that Jesus was most probably a real person at the level of better than 50% likelihood. And what I am saying, and what I think other sceptics here are saying, is that not only does the claimed evidence fall well short of that level, but that in fact there is barely any such genuine evidence at all ... and let's be clear that means "evidence of that which is being claimed" (not merely evidence of un-evidenced faith-belief), and that claim is that Jesus existed as an ordinary non-miraculous human preacher in the 1st century such that he was indeed the figure described in the gospels and letters of the bible ...

... that evidence for Jesus as a human person known to anyone in that biblical writing, is practically, if not literally, 100% non-existent. And that's the issue. That is the problem.

And by the way – in case any of the above sounds like I am “having a go” at Gdon, I am not doing that. Not at all. I know that he is a Christian and of course he believes that the evidence is good enough to confirm to himself that Jesus did exist. Fine. But all that I am trying to get Gdon to understand is why I, and all other sceptics (here or anywhere else), will certainly not agree that the bible is “good enough evidence” … to think that the bible is “good enough evidence” is frankly delusional at best.

And, whilst I am on the issue of disclaimers - if any of my above reply sounds to you (i.e. “reads” to you) as strident or insistent etc., then again ; it is absolutely not that at all. All I am trying to do is to point out (or explain) why it is unacceptable to claim that either the bible or non-biblical sources such as Tacitus and Josephus cannot be regarded as credible evidence for any of those writers ever knowing any human Jesus. And nor can they be claimed as credible evidence for any of those writers even reporting reliable sources who ever told them of anyone ever having known or met a human Jesus. There is nothing at all in any of that non-biblical writing to show that any of those who wrote about belief in Jesus, had actually ever known any genuine evidence whatsoever of any living human Jesus.

That's the problem – total 100% lack of any genuine credible honest evidence.

And that situation is seriously compounded by the fact that even to this day, bible scholars and other Christian writers are still persuading people that the bible provides evidence so strong that they “all” claim it be absolute literal “certainty” of a HJ (e.g. Bart Ehrman in “Did Jesus Exist?”, repeatedly says it's an absolute “certainty” that Jesus existed, for which he adds that “every properly trained scholar on the planet” agrees with him!). And his readers, and seemingly all HJ posters here, actually believe bible scholars like Ehrman to be trusted authorities who are cited as an "appeal to authority" when they repeatedly & constantly write things like that … here, on this forum, people may not agree it's a “certainty”, but they will nevertheless repeatedly “fall back” on a position of making an appeal to authority in those same bible scholars who make exactly that same statement of “certainty”.

And as a final disclaimer, for the sake of clarity (because it appears to need endless repetitions of the same clarifying statements) – I have nothing in particular against Ehrman, and I think he does actually write quite well (better & clearer than Carrier, for example), except when he tries to claim such things as saying in his book that we actually have no less than 7 gospel sources for a HJ, which he says are “seven written sources” and “seven independent sources”, and those are “g-Mark, g-Mathew, g-Luke, g-John, Q, M and L” … according to Ehrman, those are seven independent written sources that provide the evidence to show a HJ. Really, it's quite astounding that a long-established university academic could write something as absurd and demonstrably untrue as that … and even more astonishing that relatively well educated people here (inc. many atheists) could ever believe and repeat such abject nonsense from biblical studies teachers.
 
I have nothing in particular against Ehrman, and I think he does actually write quite well (better & clearer than Carrier, for example), except when he tries to claim such things as saying in his book that we actually have no less than 7 gospel sources for a HJ, which he says are “seven written sources” and “seven independent sources”, and those are “g-Mark, g-Mathew, g-Luke, g-John, Q, M and L” … according to Ehrman, those are seven independent written sources that provide the evidence to show a HJ. Really, it's quite astounding that a long-established university academic could write something as absurd and demonstrably untrue as that … and even more astonishing that relatively well educated people here (inc. many atheists) could ever believe and repeat such abject nonsense from biblical studies teachers.
It is customary, when making such statements, to include in them the name of the book, and the page, to which allusion is being made. I would be grateful if you could provide that reference here.
 
James was a pillar of the early church, and Paul apparently took the gospel message that he got from the heavenly Jesus in order for James to ratify (which seems odd, since James in that case apparently trumps the heavenly Jesus). So it was a big deal to Paul.

Again, more nonsense!! How in the world can you just assume the letters under the name of Paul are credible?

The claims in the NT cannot be assumed to be facts. There is no historical evidence to corroborate that a heavenly Jesus [a fiction character] gave anyone messages at any time in the history of mankind.

1. The NT [including letters under the name of Paul] are compilation of fiction about Gods, Ghosts, Devils, Angels and God Creator [Jesus-the Lord from heaven].


2 Corinthians 12:2
I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth) such an one caught up to the third heaven.


2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

1 Corinthians 6:3
Know ye not that we shall judge angels? how much more things that pertain to this life?

The letters under the name of Paul are apparently of no historical value with respect to Jesus [God Creator--the Lord from heaven].
 
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OK, if you are going to talk about "the problem with my style of argument", then the first thing to note in your first highlighted sentence above (i.e., "1"), is that I am not proposing any "mythicism". I have no idea whether Jesus was mythical or not. And I could not put (and never have put) any notional odds on it, neither 0%, or 100%, nor any %age in between. So I definitely do not need to do as you say "(provide you with) the evidence of a non-corporeal Jesus" - I have no obligation whatsoever to do that (I am not claiming he was a myth).

OK, then. But you do have an obligation to advance at least a provisional explanation, otherwise the 'where is the evidence?' routine is just obnoxious. If you personally feel that no explanation can be extracted at all from the messy texts, then all you're doing is barracking from the sidelines.

So that statement from you in highlight 1, is simply 100% wrong. The same question burden does not fall on me. I am not claiming Jesus was a myth (I have no strong opinion on whether he was, or was not, a myth). All I am claiming is that the evidence presented so far (e.g. by bible scholars such as Bart Ehrman) is unconvincing in the extreme.

No, you are unconvinced by the interpretation placed on the NT and other sources and do not think those interpretations constitute evidence of a historical Jesus. Which is fine. But this still leaves the problem of explaining the sources unsolved. The NT is evidence for something.

Highlight 2 - I was replying specifically to Gdon who has specifically already told us that he is a Chrsitian and believes Jesus was real. And what I said was that he (Gdon) is trying to shift the burden of providing proof evidence, when says that I must provide some alternative myth theory for Jesus. I have no obligation to do any such thing (although many other people have done exactly that, both here in these recent HJ threads, and in countless HJ-sceptic books … so there are plenty of myth theories, though none of them from me).

Actually, yes, you do have an obligation to explain the NT and other sources in some coherent manner. Failure to do this doesn't make the Christian religion true nor does it mean that the historicity of Jesus is certain beyond all reasonable doubt.

But failure to explain the sources does mean you have nothing to add to a perfectly worthwhile historical research question, namely how Christianity arose. That is the secular issue at stake here.

The burden of proof evidence rests entirely upon those who say they believe Jesus was more likely than not to have been a real person ... their burden is simply to tell us what they are relying upon as their evidence. Gdon has just told us that he takes the gosples and letters of the bible to be his evidence for believing Jesus was real ... i.e. good enough evidence to conclude greater than 50% probability (that's what it means to say you believe on the balance of evidence that he was probably real) ... all that I am saying about that, is that such biblical writing is not in fact evidence of a human Jesus ever known to any of those biblical writers at all.

Then such biblical writings are evidence for something else; you've not explained what they're evidence for. Constantly relying on 'not' and presenting a series of negations is pretty lame. The texts exist; explain them.

Highlight 3 - and I think I will stop at this 3rd highlight (without reading the rest of your reply in any detail) because there is more than enough to be going on with in these three points (though we have been over all 3 points at least 1000 times before in these threads ... literally 1000 times or more!); we are not arguing about quote "The question of .... reconstructing the origins of Christianity"! ... nobody is disputing that people who we now call "Christians" existed at some early date (e.g. 1st century), and that they believed a figure known as Iesous/Yehoshua (i.e. "Jesus" in 12th century English) had once been the miraculous messiah. That is not any part of any dispute here ...

So at what point in the history of the early church are we on 'secure' ground, then?

... what is in dispute is whether or not the material claimed as evidence (claimed mainly by bible scholars, the Church, and Christian writers in general), is good enough to conclude that Jesus was most probably a real person at the level of better than 50% likelihood. And what I am saying, and what I think other sceptics here are saying, is that not only does the claimed evidence fall well short of that level, but that in fact there is barely any such genuine evidence at all ... and let's be clear that means "evidence of that which is being claimed" (not merely evidence of un-evidenced faith-belief), and that claim is that Jesus existed as an ordinary non-miraculous human preacher in the 1st century such that he was indeed the figure described in the gospels and letters of the bible ...

So how then does a secular historian backtrack from the moment of 'secure' knowledge to explore the origins of one of the most important religions in world history?

It strikes me that historians seeking to reconstruct the origins of Christianity are going to have to rely on the NT and related early texts just as much as they have to rely on the patristic writings and the not terribly reliable Eusebius.

... that evidence for Jesus as a human person known to anyone in that biblical writing, is practically, if not literally, 100% non-existent. And that's the issue. That is the problem.

Why is it a problem? All of the surviving sources talk incessantly about a figure named Jesus. They believe in this person's historicity. We are not in a position to travel back in time to disabuse them of this belief; that belief is fully historical.

We cannot verify the existence of the person they so fervently believed in, using external independent corroborative evidence, but nor can we point to external independent evidence that disproves his existence. Measured by the standards of evidence we expect for more contemporary eras, the entire question is uncertain.

And by the way – in case any of the above sounds like I am “having a go” at Gdon, I am not doing that. Not at all. I know that he is a Christian and of course he believes that the evidence is good enough to confirm to himself that Jesus did exist. Fine. But all that I am trying to get Gdon to understand is why I, and all other sceptics (here or anywhere else), will certainly not agree that the bible is “good enough evidence” … to think that the bible is “good enough evidence” is frankly delusional at best.

And, whilst I am on the issue of disclaimers - if any of my above reply sounds to you (i.e. “reads” to you) as strident or insistent etc., then again ; it is absolutely not that at all. All I am trying to do is to point out (or explain) why it is unacceptable to claim that either the bible or non-biblical sources such as Tacitus and Josephus cannot be regarded as credible evidence for any of those writers ever knowing any human Jesus. And nor can they be claimed as credible evidence for any of those writers even reporting reliable sources who ever told them of anyone ever having known or met a human Jesus. There is nothing at all in any of that non-biblical writing to show that any of those who wrote about belief in Jesus, had actually ever known any genuine evidence whatsoever of any living human Jesus.

That's the problem – total 100% lack of any genuine credible honest evidence.

It's ironic, you keep going on about 'credible evidence' but the evidence we do have is all about the beliefs in Jesus circulating among early Christians, who proceeded to write down what they thought about him in all their contradictory, messy, polemical, theologically inclined glory.

This situation doesn't bother me, because I don't realistically expect 'hard evidence' here, but it seems to wind you up endlessly.

Instead of droning on about "credible evidence", how about you just accept that what the NT etc offer is evidence of belief. Perfectly credible evidence of belief, in historical terms.

And that situation is seriously compounded by the fact that even to this day, bible scholars and other Christian writers are still persuading people that the bible provides evidence so strong that they “all” claim it be absolute literal “certainty” of a HJ (e.g. Bart Ehrman in “Did Jesus Exist?”, repeatedly says it's an absolute “certainty” that Jesus existed, for which he adds that “every properly trained scholar on the planet” agrees with him!). And his readers, and seemingly all HJ posters here, actually believe bible scholars like Ehrman to be trusted authorities who are cited as an "appeal to authority" when they repeatedly & constantly write things like that … here, on this forum, people may not agree it's a “certainty”, but they will nevertheless repeatedly “fall back” on a position of making an appeal to authority in those same bible scholars who make exactly that same statement of “certainty”.

Since I haven't referenced Ehrman's Did Jesus Exist?, this is irrelevant. As it happens, I don't think it's a very good book, nor do I think the question (quest) is at all certain.

And as a final disclaimer, for the sake of clarity (because it appears to need endless repetitions of the same clarifying statements) – I have nothing in particular against Ehrman, and I think he does actually write quite well (better & clearer than Carrier, for example), except when he tries to claim such things as saying in his book that we actually have no less than 7 gospel sources for a HJ, which he says are “seven written sources” and “seven independent sources”, and those are “g-Mark, g-Mathew, g-Luke, g-John, Q, M and L” … according to Ehrman, those are seven independent written sources that provide the evidence to show a HJ. Really, it's quite astounding that a long-established university academic could write something as absurd and demonstrably untrue as that … and even more astonishing that relatively well educated people here (inc. many atheists) could ever believe and repeat such abject nonsense from biblical studies teachers.

Yeah, he lost me at that one, too.
 
It is customary, when making such statements, to include in them the name of the book, and the page, to which allusion is being made. I would be grateful if you could provide that reference here.

IanS was referring to Ehrman's Did Jesus Exist? which he had mentioned earlier in his post. Ehrman does indeed double-count the gospels and underlying traditions as supposedly independent witnesses.
 
James was a pillar of the early church, and Paul apparently took the gospel message that he got from the heavenly Jesus in order for James to ratify (which seems odd, since James in that case apparently trumps the heavenly Jesus). So it was a big deal to Paul.

And now you understand why I'm circumspect. That character isn't just some random dude that Paul mentions having met. He ONLY appears in the epistles when Paul needs some figure of authority blessing his ministry to the gentiles. The potential for it being either a sockpuppet, or Paul mis-representing James is there.

But from a more philosophical aspect, how do you even get to "provisionally", given what you've written earlier about people making things up and the need for corroboration, etc?

Well, as I was saying, mostly because in the end it's irrelevant for the scope of the HJ discussion. As long as the best we're told is that Jesus appeared to him after the resurrection, AND he (along with Peter and everyone else) never had anything to add to Paul's story, he's not even made to be a witness of a HJ. He's just a guy that Paul divides the turf with.

So who cares? Whether Paul made him up or not, he's a dead end anyway.

So, yeah, we should need corroboration if the existence of James is important for anything. But for the scope of this discussion, I'm ok with not exploring that tangent. Unless you really want to, I guess.
 
...It's ironic, you keep going on about 'credible evidence' but the evidence we do have is all about the beliefs in Jesus circulating among early Christians, who proceeded to write down what they thought about him in all their contradictory, messy, polemical, theologically inclined glory.

Belief is of no historical value. Anyone who has read the NT and Christian writings would have noticed that they believed Ghosts did exist and that one them Ghosts was the father of Jesus.


...
Instead of droning on about "credible evidence", how about you just accept that what the NT etc offer is evidence of belief. Perfectly credible evidence of belief, in historical terms.

What absurdity you post. It is already known that "credible evidence of belief" has no historical value.

There is no such thing as "perfectly credible evidence of belief, in historical terms".

The NT Jesus story is historical garbage from conception to ascension.

Belief in fiction stories which never did and could not have happened have no historical value.

In the 1st century people in the Roman Empire believed hundreds of Gods and fiction characters did exist.

In writings of Josephus Antiquities of the Jews 19.1 it is claimed that Gaius the Emperor Rome c37-41 called himself the brother of Jupiter [a myth/fiction God].

Jesus and Jupiter are all fiction characters worshiped by Romans as Gods.
 
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Even if it was an absolute rule, I don't think that Hans was applying it appropriately. Suppose two witnesses give evidence: we saw person x doing action y. Then am I applying Occam's razor when I say: here are two witnesses; I'll believe them? No because then if there were the two witnesses, but they gave evidence involving three persons, I would need to say, the number of entities about whom the witnesses are giving evidence is greater than the number of witnesses - more "entities" on that side. Occam won't let me accept that, because I can deny the existence of the two witnesses more parsimoniously than the existence of the three persons in their testimony. By denying two I can achieve the same result as by denying three.

I'm not sure the razor works that way. Maybe it needs its battery replaced.

See the formulation of Ockham's Razor:

For nothing ought to be posited without a reason given, unless it is self-evident (literally, known through itself) or known by experience or proved by the authority of Sacred Scripture. (Commentary on the Sentences of Peter Lombard I, dist. 30, q. 1)
​
It don't refer to the number of entities on discussion but to the number of explanatory suppositions. And statements supported by experience are excluded of its application.
 
Well, the general problem with that one is that we don't really know if he meant the brother of JESUS. About a millennium and a half of canon theology -- and in fact STILL the official theology for a little more than half the Xians -- is that he did not mean the biological brother of Jesus.

That said, people make up other people all the time. For all sorts of reasons. Extra support for what they're saying. Fleshing out a story. Strawman sockpuppets to present a distorted opposing point of view, that they can engage easier than the real thing. Etc.

Why did Joseph Smith make up the whole cast of his Book Of Mormon? Doesn't matter. Fact is that he did. It's pointless to look for a historical Alma The Elder or Nephi or all those other characters in his book. There is no historical Alma. Joseph Smith made him up.

I was not intending to put again the question of the brotherhood of James. I only stated that Paul's claim that he met the so called "James the Lord's brother" is more reliable that the claim that he obtained carte blanche from him or his description of his quarrels with Peter, his visions, etc.
You can reasonably distrust of interested descriptions, but indirect asserts are more reliable.
 
IanS was referring to Ehrman's Did Jesus Exist? which he had mentioned earlier in his post. Ehrman does indeed double-count the gospels and underlying traditions as supposedly independent witnesses.
Thank you. Can I have the reference please?
 
IanS was referring to Ehrman's Did Jesus Exist? which he had mentioned earlier in his post. Ehrman does indeed double-count the gospels and underlying traditions as supposedly independent witnesses.

Yeah, that looks like a howler. I think the number 7 actually comes from the three traditions thought to underlie John.
 

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