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For Kapyong: Defending a historical Jesus

Why isn't the best explanation for this urban legend the existence of an actual driver who delivered a bus full of normal people to a mental hospital?

Because that explanation involves a LOT of extra entities, AND the least reliable source imaginable, short of consulting the spirits or something. Not just Jesus and his gang, or respectively the people on the crazy bus, but also a whole lot of people in the oral transmission chain have to (A) exist, and (B) not change the material.

It being maade up only needs one entity: the one who made it up.

Automatically assuming historicity in the absence of any coroboration simply fails Occam. Epically.
This argument is an interesting interpretation of Occam's Razor. Epically. If I hear that one person is the source of a story about an incident involving two or more people, then the story is false. Why? Because
It being made up needs only one entity: the one who made it up.​
Presumably, by contrast.
It being true needs two or more entities: the ones about whom it is told.​
And Occam's Razor forbids us to postulate the existence of more entities than the minimum we need to account for the observed phenomena.

I think I'll go and have a rest and a cup of tea while I think about that.
 
Actually, in your example, it being true needs three entities. You still need the guy who is the source in any case. The entities in the story are extra. If an oral transmission is involved, then for it to be true, everyone in the chain of transmission is a necessary entity too, for that story to be actually based on any actual event.

But bear in mind the usual caveat. Occam doesn't prove something to be the truth. It just says, go with the simplest explanation for the available data. It may well still turn out that the other is true, but you need more data to show that to be the case.
 
But the even shorter version is that generally automatically believing that there's some historical event or person behind an urban legend -- because ultimately that's what "oral tradition" is -- is supported by nothing more than unwillingness to believe that people could make crap up. I.e., gullibility by any other name.
I'm willing to believe that people could make crap up. But is there evidence that Paul and the author of the Gospel of Mark made up a Jew called Jesus whom was crucified?

In practice, not only do we know that people have no trouble making crap up in general, but even in Christianity it's canon that we have whole gospels which are accepted as fiction. Hell, we have the whole infancy gospel genre, which is accepted even by theologians as ENTIRELY composed of fiction. Dozens of epistles making stuff up and signing it as some apostle or another. Copying a pagan text like Eugnostos into sayings of Jesus. Orally transmitted stories, like the ones in Papias, that are on top of that, because we can't find them in any gospel we know of. Etc.
That is confusing two things: the bare historicity of a person, and the truth about the tales told about him.
 
Are we talking about the same Paul who repeatedly makes it a point of pride, and something to boast about, that he didn't learn anything about Jesus from any human, but got it all from his own halluci... err... visions? That he went and preached the same in Arabia for years BEFORE checking with anyone, or even meeting Peter or anyone else? The Paul who relays stuff from his two-way conversations with dead Jesus?

Yeeaahh... about that... Maybe he doesn't intentionally make stuff up, but unless you actually believe that he was having genuine visions from Jesus, yeah, it's still stuff his brain made up.

Besides, you don't seem to understand Occam or positive claims. That some extra entities and events didn't happen is the default. The null hypothesis. If you want them to have happened, you have to present evidence for that. Asking for evidence that Paul made them up is exactly an argument from ignorance. As in, literally asking to reverse the burden of proof.
 
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This argument is an interesting interpretation of Occam's Razor. Epically. If I hear that one person is the source of a story about an incident involving two or more people, then the story is false. Why? Because
It being made up needs only one entity: the one who made it up.​
Presumably, by contrast.
It being true needs two or more entities: the ones about whom it is told.​
And Occam's Razor forbids us to postulate the existence of more entities than the minimum we need to account for the observed phenomena.

I think I'll go and have a rest and a cup of tea while I think about that.
True formulation of Ockham’s Razor:

For nothing ought to be posited without a reason given, unless it is self-evident (literally, known through itself) or known by experience or proved by the authority of Sacred Scripture. (Commentary on the Sentences of Peter Lombard I, dist. 30, q. 1)
Take care with the use of Ockham’s Razor. It is not an absolute rule and must be contra-balanced with other considerations. Take care also to not confound natural sciences and history. The clue is what we consider “a reason”.
 
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Yes, well, in the meantime, reason means if you have some data that isn't explained by the simpler hypothesis. It doesn't mean just wishing real hard to believe that Paul wouldn't have lied about it... although not only we know that plenty of people were lying at the time, but even Paul himself warns that other people in his time did.
 
True formulation of Ockham’s Razor:


Take care with the use of Ockham’s Razor. It is not an absolute rule and must be contra-balanced with other considerations. Take care also to not confound natural sciences and history. The clue is what we consider “a reason”.
Even if it was an absolute rule, I don't think that Hans was applying it appropriately. Suppose two witnesses give evidence: we saw person x doing action y. Then am I applying Occam's razor when I say: here are two witnesses; I'll believe them? No because then if there were the two witnesses, but they gave evidence involving three persons, I would need to say, the number of entities about whom the witnesses are giving evidence is greater than the number of witnesses - more "entities" on that side. Occam won't let me accept that, because I can deny the existence of the two witnesses more parsimoniously than the existence of the three persons in their testimony. By denying two I can achieve the same result as by denying three.

I'm not sure the razor works that way. Maybe it needs its battery replaced.
 
Are we talking about the same Paul who repeatedly makes it a point of pride, and something to boast about, that he didn't learn anything about Jesus from any human, but got it all from his own halluci... err... visions?
No, Paul never claimed that. Paul claimed that he got his gospel from no man: the gospel to the uncircumsized.

Yeeaahh... about that... Maybe he doesn't intentionally make stuff up, but unless you actually believe that he was having genuine visions from Jesus, yeah, it's still stuff his brain made up.
What stuff relevant to the existence of a Jew called Jesus did he make up?

Besides, you don't seem to understand Occam or positive claims. That some extra entities and events didn't happen is the default. The null hypothesis. If you want them to have happened, you have to present evidence for that. Asking for evidence that Paul made them up is exactly an argument from ignorance. As in, literally asking to reverse the burden of proof.
Is the data that poor though? Even Dr Carrier believes examining the data yields a conclusion one way or another. Paul and the GMark author make certain statements, arguably about a Jew called Jesus who was crucified in the authors' near past. AFAICS it is not unreasonable to conclude that the existence of those materials, with their presentation of a Jesus who was a real person on earth, provides a prima facie case for historicity of that Jesus.
 
But why is that? Obviously the Gospel of Mark and the letters of Paul had to come out from somewhere. They didn't spontaneously spring into being. Why isn't the best explanation for their existence is that they were a reaction to a crucified Jew called Jesus, whom was later thought to be resurrected by God?

Of course some other explanation may cover this, but simply saying "maybe something else" doesn't make that "something else" the best explanation. To repeat the comment from Lowder:
http://infidels.org/library/modern/jeff_lowder/indconf.html

There simply is nothing epistemically improbable about the mere existence of a man named Jesus. (Just because Jesus existed does not mean that he was born of a virgin, that he rose from the dead, etc.) Although a discussion of the New Testament evidence is beyond the scope of this paper, I think that the New Testament does provide prima facie evidence for the historicity of Jesus. It is clear, then, that if we are going to apply to the New Testament "the same sort of criteria as we should apply to other ancient writings containing historical material," we should not require independent confirmation of the New Testament's claim that Jesus existed.​
The comment that there is "nothing epistemically improbable about the mere existence of a man named Jesus" is to me the starting point. Dr Carrier seems to have the only peer-reviewed theory to explain the origins of Christianity, and I personally think his theory can be rejected. And that leaves me with the low bar of the mere existence of a man named Jesus. Is there a better explanation for the origins of Christianity, IYO?


Well the first thing to notice from the above, is that you have not actually answered the question of evidence at all. You have produced no genuine evidence of Jesus at all.

Instead what you have done is attempt to shift the burden of proof evidence.

The burden is upon you to provide the evidence of Jesus being known to anyone as a human person. There is no such obligation on your opponents who simply ask "what is the evidence of Jesus as a known human person?".

However, just to indulge you by responding to what you write above, in spite of what must now be at least 8 years of such indulgence posting on various forums, during which time amongst all the tens of thousands of pro-HJ posts, not a single shred of genuine credible evidence has ever been produced (that's "evidence" of Jesus as a human person ever known to anyone at all ... not "evidence" of something else such as religious belief, but evidence of Jesus as a known living person) -


But why is that? Obviously the Gospel of Mark and the letters of Paul had to come out from somewhere. They didn't spontaneously spring into being. Why isn't the best explanation for their existence is that they were a reaction to a crucified Jew called Jesus, whom was later thought to be resurrected by God?


You are seriously asking, how it could ever be possible that religious belief about a supernatural "god" (i.e. Jesus in this case) could ever be written about by 1st century totally ignorant superstitious religious fanatics, unless the "god" was real? You are seriously claiming to be incredulous as to how people in ancient history could ever have written about belief in gods unless the gods really did exist?

Quote: “Why isn't the best explanation to believe what the gospels and letters say about Jesus?”. Well the answer is obvious and certainly very well known to you. Because it's the same answer that you have seen in every post from every HJ-sceptic who ever posted anything, and the same answer explained in vast detail by every author who has ever written books about why we should be sceptical about the existence of Jesus. So you must know very well indeed why the gospels and letters of the bible are not credible as reliable evidence for what they claim about belief in an unknown un-evidenced Jesus. In fact it should be obvious to anyone, and utterly undeniable, that bible is so far from being a credible source of evidence that you should embarrassed to offer it as if it was really honest evidence of Jesus.


But why is that? Obviously the Gospel of Mark and the letters of Paul had to come out from somewhere. They didn't spontaneously spring into being. Why isn't the best explanation for their existence is that they were a reaction to a crucified Jew called Jesus, whom was later thought to be resurrected by God?

Of course some other explanation may cover this, but simply saying "maybe something else" doesn't make that "something else" the best explanation. To repeat the comment from Lowder:
http://infidels.org/library/modern/jeff_lowder/indconf.html

There simply is nothing epistemically improbable about the mere existence of a man named Jesus. (Just because Jesus existed does not mean that he was born of a virgin, that he rose from the dead, etc.) Although a discussion of the New Testament evidence is beyond the scope of this paper, I think that the New Testament does provide prima facie evidence for the historicity of Jesus. It is clear, then, that if we are going to apply to the New Testament "the same sort of criteria as we should apply to other ancient writings containing historical material," we should not require independent confirmation of the New Testament's claim that Jesus existed.​
The comment that there is "nothing epistemically improbable about the mere existence of a man named Jesus" is to me the starting point. Dr Carrier seems to have the only peer-reviewed theory to explain the origins of Christianity, and I personally think his theory can be rejected. And that leaves me with the low bar of the mere existence of a man named Jesus. Is there a better explanation for the origins of Christianity, IYO?


This is again shifting your own burden of proof evidence onto others. You do not have any genuine reliable evidence of Jesus. But what you want to do, is to say that you nevertheless believe in Jesus and you want other people who ask for the evidence to stop asking for your evidence and to produce instead some specific myth theory as an alternative. But there is absolutely no need and no responsibility on any sceptic to dream-up any specific myth theory. It's you as a Christian who believes Jesus did exist (ditto "almost every properly trained scholar on the planet", according to Bart Ehrman), who has the responsibility to either produce reliable evidence of his actual existence, or else just admit that you operating by religious faith.

However (to indulge you further) - just because something is not "epistemically improbable", such as the existence of all sorts of religious street preachers in 1st century Judea, that does not mean, and provides no evidence for, the specific supernatural individual described in the religious beliefs preached as the bible.

And before anyone says "oh, we are not agreeing with the bible when it describes him as "supernatural"", the fact is that the bible does describe this figure as multiply and continuously supernatural on virtually every page! The entire reason why those biblical writers are claiming Jesus as the messiah, is that he was (according to them) certainly supernatural in the most astounding way ... that's the whole point of the biblical writing - they are not writing some believable story about an ordinary preacher who they later came to believe was the messiah ... they are writing about absolute beliefs (ie a certainty of faith) in a figure whose astounding endless miracles proved he was the messiah, inc. witnesses to his own self-resurrection from the dead etc.

The only reason why you, bible scholars, and Christian preachers/writers now (in the 21st century) wish to erase almost everything that was said about Jesus in the gospels, i.e. all the constant miracles etc., is because over the last 200 years or so, an increasing public education and awareness of science has made it impossible for educated people to believe all those descriptions of Jesus. If it were not for that advance in science, you would still be claiming, as everyone did before science, that the miracles of the gospels were absolute proof that Jesus must have been the messianic son of Yahweh!

You should ask yourself “what is the honest honourable justification for anyone simply erasing all those passages from the gospels and letters”? What is the honest justification for simply rubbing-out all the parts of the bible that show that the bible stories are certainly fictitious at almost every mention of Jesus, until you get to a tiny rump of remains of stories where nothing overtly miraculous or supernatural happens, and then claiming that the remains are not actually physically impossible? What is the justification for that? The justification is only that all the other parts (that's almost every significant thing said about Jesus) has been proved to be fictional writing. How much of it has to be proved as untrue fiction, before you start to admit that the source itself (the bible) is massively & completely unreliable?

Lastly, since you mentioned Carrier – it does not matter whether Carrier or anyone else proposes a specific myth theory, which might or might not be a valid explanation of anything. The fundamental issue is that question of whether or not the historic claims for Jesus can be supported by any actual evidence of Jesus as a living person ever known to anyone.

It must always come down to that same question of evidence - “what is the actual, genuine, evidence of Jesus existing as a human person ever known to anyone?”.

And in fact, the answer which all bible scholars and all others rely on to claim belief in Jesus, all boils down to the biblical writing (letters and gospels) … that is actually the entirety of the claimed evidence – the Bible! Just the bible and really nothing else …

… because there is actually nothing else that is credibly independent of the bible and/or it's gospel preaching, as evidence of Jesus. That's it. That's actually the source of all claimed evidence – the Bible.

In order to believe in Jesus, you have to believe that the bible is a credible source of it's own utterly fantastic and quite impossible mythical stories of messiah belief.

But the gospels and letters of the bible are, as explained here many times before (and as should be unarguably obvious to any educated unbiased person in the 21st century), just about as far from being a reliable and credible source of historical fact, as it's possible ever to get.

IOW (the result of all the above is …) - we are back to the need for your evidence?

What actually is the evidence that you provide to show that Jesus was a human person known to anyone?
 
Yes, well, in the meantime, reason means if you have some data that isn't explained by the simpler hypothesis. It doesn't mean just wishing real hard to believe that Paul wouldn't have lied about it... although not only we know that plenty of people were lying at the time, but even Paul himself warns that other people in his time did.

You are right. In a general sense we have no reason to belief that Paul is being objective about the events narrated in his epistles. We have to be very cautious or sceptic about this. But we have no reason to doubt about the facts that don't suggest a particular interest to Paul. For example, that he met James, Lord's brother. Why not?
 
Well the first thing to notice from the above, is that you have not actually answered the question of evidence at all. You have produced no genuine evidence of Jesus at all.
Yes I have: Paul's letters and GMark, based upon the background of what we know about the ancient world and ancient writings.

You are seriously asking, how it could ever be possible that religious belief about a supernatural "god" (i.e. Jesus in this case) could ever be written about by 1st century totally ignorant superstitious religious fanatics, unless the "god" was real?
No, I'm not asking that.

You are seriously claiming to be incredulous as to how people in ancient history could ever have written about belief in gods unless the gods really did exist?
No, I'm not claiming that.

Quote: “Why isn't the best explanation to believe what the gospels and letters say about Jesus?”.
That's not a quote by me.

But what you want to do, is to say that you nevertheless believe in Jesus and you want other people who ask for the evidence to stop asking for your evidence and to produce instead some specific myth theory as an alternative.
No, I don't want to do that.

I'm stopping there. Thanks.
 
You are right. In a general sense we have no reason to belief that Paul is being objective about the events narrated in his epistles. We have to be very cautious or sceptic about this. But we have no reason to doubt about the facts that don't suggest a particular interest to Paul. For example, that he met James, Lord's brother. Why not?

Well, the general problem with that one is that we don't really know if he meant the brother of JESUS. About a millennium and a half of canon theology -- and in fact STILL the official theology for a little more than half the Xians -- is that he did not mean the biological brother of Jesus.

That said, people make up other people all the time. For all sorts of reasons. Extra support for what they're saying. Fleshing out a story. Strawman sockpuppets to present a distorted opposing point of view, that they can engage easier than the real thing. Etc.

Why did Joseph Smith make up the whole cast of his Book Of Mormon? Doesn't matter. Fact is that he did. It's pointless to look for a historical Alma The Elder or Nephi or all those other characters in his book. There is no historical Alma. Joseph Smith made him up.
 
Is the data that poor though? Even Dr Carrier believes examining the data yields a conclusion one way or another. Paul and the GMark author make certain statements, arguably about a Jew called Jesus who was crucified in the authors' near past. AFAICS it is not unreasonable to conclude that the existence of those materials, with their presentation of a Jesus who was a real person on earth, provides a prima facie case for historicity of that Jesus.

Is it that poor? Depends what for.

If you want to figure out what the story Paul was telling was about, which is what Carrier is doing, sure, you can examine that story. If you want to find historical characters in that story, well, you kinda need corroboration.

Kind of like examining War And Peace. You can try to figure out what the author's idea about Count Bezukhov, and it's ok to take the novel as THE primary source for that. But if you want to find a historical Count Pyotr "Pierre" Kirillovich Bezukhov, well, some corroboration might be needed.
 
Yes I have: Paul's letters and GMark, based upon the background of what we know about the ancient world and ancient writings.


No, I'm not asking that.


No, I'm not claiming that.


That's not a quote by me.


No, I don't want to do that.

I'm stopping there. Thanks.



OK, so your evidence IS the bible.

That is a faith position.

Because those letters and gospels do not actually contain any credible evidence of Paul or anyone else ever claiming to have known a human Jesus.

If you believe the bible as a matter of your religious faith, then that's a matter for you (as long as it does not damage other people around you). But that's not a belief based upon any actual evidence of Jesus ever known to any of those people who wrote the gospels and letters of the bible.
 
OK, so your evidence IS the bible.

That is a faith position.

Because those letters and gospels do not actually contain any credible evidence of Paul or anyone else ever claiming to have known a human Jesus.

If you believe the bible as a matter of your religious faith, then that's a matter for you (as long as it does not damage other people around you). But that's not a belief based upon any actual evidence of Jesus ever known to any of those people who wrote the gospels and letters of the bible.
Neither of our two sources of information on Hannibal claims to have known him. Nor could they have since they were not contemporaries. Therefore only worshippers of Melkart (who might do damage to other people around them by burning them on sacrificial fires) actuated by religious faith, could treat Polybius and Livy as valid sources of information. Did they know Hannibal personally? Did they hell! Don't let the Melkartites tell you otherwise. Here's how bad things are.
The Greek historian Polybius ... drew from many sources that are no longer identifiable, as well as employing documentary evidence, such as the treaties between Rome and Carthage ... Polybius is considered the be the most reliable of sources, despite having written about Hannibal seventy years after the war commander's death.
... The sources from which Livy (Titus Livius Patavinus) obtained his knowledge are uncertain; however as he showed few signs of travel from his home-town Patavium (now modern Padua); and therefore any written sources he addressed were most likely of Roman influence.​
Do we have the originals of the treaties between Rome and Carthage? I bet we only have reports of them included in later historical works!
 
If you want to figure out what the story Paul was telling was about, which is what Carrier is doing, sure, you can examine that story. If you want to find historical characters in that story, well, you kinda need corroboration.
But why? If Paul says he met James (regardless of whether or not that James was a biological brother of Jesus), we generally assume that there really was a person called James who actually existed. Is that not reasonable?

Of course, Paul could be lying or creating fiction, or having a hallucination, or it could be a later interpolation. All those things are possible. But wouldn't the most parsimonious reason for why Paul wrote that he met James, is that Paul actually met James?
 
Just to quote something I earlier said myself, because someone commented adversely on it -

Apparently, the actual date of the earliest known writing that we actually have under the names Josephus and Tacitus, ie the material that anyone can actually read anything from, dates from about the 11th century ... and that is 1000 years too late to be considered even remotely credible as any evidence of a human Jesus that was entirely unknown to any such non-biblical authors.


What that paragraph says is not that Josephus and Tacitus cannot be credible or reliable sources of general historical evidence about other non-religious issues (although I expect sources like these are probably very often regarded as strongly biased and/or inaccurate about a great deal of what they wrote as “history”), but instead what it says is that 11th century Christian copying, where those Christian copyists were in general well known to have been in the habit of altering such writing wherever they later came disagree with it, and where in vast long historical works the writers only included an extremely brief few words as passing mention of Jesus, and where the original writers Josephus and Tacitus (and any others) certainly had never themselves known any such person as Jesus, and where the passages in question make no claim whatsoever to have got any information from any named person (let alone claiming to have got it from persons who were first-hand witnesses), that amounts to an enormous chain of doubt and absence of evidence, that could never amount to a credible case for Jesus in 11th century copying.

Anyone who thinks that Tacitus and Josephus, or in fact their 11th century copyists, were providing known evidence (i.e. known to them or known to any supposed but unknown never-mentioned sources) of Jesus, is deluding themselves for reasons of religious faith or for some other even less justifiable reasons.

Tacitus and Josephus certainly had no evidence of their own to give about Jesus. They were (apparently) not even yet born at the time! And if in their original writing circa.100AD they wrote anything at all about Jesus, then we certainly do not know what it was that either of them actually said.

The only thing they could possibly write about Jesus, was to just repeat whatever other people had said about Jesus from earlier times. But who else was it that Tacitus and Josephus named as their sources? The answer is … nobody! They do not name anyone who ever told them anything about Jesus.

Instead, what those non-biblical authors were writing as their ultra brief mentions of Jesus, could only realistically have been whatever was generally being said at the time by Christians themselves. So what is the evidence that such Christians themselves had ever known any human Jesus? Answer, none! As far as anyone can honestly tell, that just leads us straight back to the biblical preaching again. So what is the evidence of a human Jesus in the bible? Answer (again), actually, none!
 
But why? If Paul says he met James (regardless of whether or not that James was a biological brother of Jesus), we generally assume that there really was a person called James who actually existed. Is that not reasonable?

Of course, Paul could be lying or creating fiction, or having a hallucination, or it could be a later interpolation. All those things are possible. But wouldn't the most parsimonious reason for why Paul wrote that he met James, is that Paul actually met James?

Well, in the second paragraph you have answered why: "Of course, Paul could be lying or creating fiction, or having a hallucination, or it could be a later interpolation."

More reliable sources than Paul have created fictive meetings that never happened. Plato, for example, is a respected philosopher and we know more about him that about Paul. Yet not only he creates a fictive philosopher Timaeus, but writes whole dialogues (note the plural), between him, Solon and Socrates. Dialogues which we know never happened, because there's about one century between Solon's death and Socrates's birth.
 
I'm willing to believe that people could make crap up. But is there evidence that Paul and the author of the Gospel of Mark made up a Jew called Jesus whom was crucified?


They did not have to simply "make him up". They found their belief in him in the divine truths of ancient "scripture" ... and Paul even tells you exactly that!
 
They did not have to simply "make him up". They found their belief in him in the divine truths of ancient "scripture" ... and Paul even tells you exactly that!
Where does Paul tell us exactly "I found my belief in him in the divine truths of ancient scripture"?
 

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