Belz...
Fiend God
Thank you for your constructive perspective on this topic, buddy-of-my-former-self.
Why? And how?
Why? I'd think that was obvious. Because you don't want to be a workplace that discriminates.
How? Well you identify the issues and fix them.
*I do know of one (anecdotal) case of reverse racism: a colleague of mine was on an explicit "diversity" fellowship, based on pulling himself up by his bootstraps from one of the poorest ghettos in the country. Every year, without fail, his fellowship would be rescinded because some knucklehead in HR noticed that he was a white male on a diversity ticket, and it would take a personal memo from his boss's boss's boss to get it reinstated.
Disparity does not imply discrimination. I didn't get into hairstyling because it's nowhere near where my interests lie.
Yes, obviously. But that's rather vague. How do they do it in real life?
Oh it implies it. It might not prove it but it certainly implies it.
The world's 'best' hairdressers seem to be a majority male and yet the industry is 90% women. Something odd is going on there and it doesn't seem to be that men can't do the job.
Lots of things. For example, you can have more flexible working hours, working from home, or other different working practices. You can go out and actively promote your company and its opportunities in the communities of interest. You can encourage schools and universities to be more balanced. It really depends on the specifics of the situation.
Affirmative Action is one of the things I'm happy to admit being wrong about.
Something like 2500 years, was the typical output of the model.
Nobody said anything about not being able to do the job.
I doubt we've hit any biological preference yet.
Why do you doubt it? It's not a secret, for instance, that women skip promotion opportunities, work fewer hours and take more vacations to spend time with their family. That affects yearly earnings, for example, which is the oft-mentioned and mis-named "wage gap".
Good. If a company is known not to recruit from a particular subset of the population, do you expect jobseekers belonging to that category to waste their time applying for work there? Early last century the ironworks that then existed near where I am sitting now in Glasgow was known not to employ Catholics. Do you think that Catholics applied for work there in large numbers? I suspect not.What if only 2% of the applicants are women? That certainly should factor into the judgmen ...
I'm trying to make sure we're considering all of the factors rather than jump to a conclusion.
Yes, I think you're right to point out that the wage gap probably isn't always a prejudicial evaluation of a woman's contribution. Although, there are studies that show this is at least part of the problem.
I think a question about the fact that women take more time off for family care would be: is it a biological predisposition, or is it responding to cultural expectations?
I have been asked if I wear a dress, too, for example.
Good. If a company is known not to recruit from a particular subset of the population, do you expect jobseekers belonging to that category to waste their time applying for work there?
If you don't know either, how can youNo. Do we know whether this is going on, generally?
If you don't know either, how can youcertainly ... factor into the judgementthis important consideration?
If it can't be done, there's little point in anyone observing that a place which employs few women doesn't have many female applicants, because we won't be able to distinguish between cause and effect.Well, I'm not doing that, so that's an odd question.
Are you seriously saying you're not aware of any places with such policies? I'm not saying that _all_ places aim for 50% women. I'm saying that several do.
I said FOR THE PLACES THAT AIM FOR 50%. Not those with different quotas.
What bias is that, now?
If classes are mixed, how is there a long way to go? What way is there to go?
Which part of AA does exactly that?
Removing a previously held privilege by selecting people based on the colour of their skin is.
What if you only get 8% of applicants who are men? How do you deal with that?
It doesn't force them to consider black people. It forces them to hire them. How do you know that the ones they hire would otherwise be the best candidates? How does that work? Seriously, educate me.
No it doesn't. It's a specific situation where it just happens that the white guy was more qualified. How does it follow that black people can't be more qualified? That makes no sense at all.
No I'm not aware of any Governments that mandate a 50% female rate on certain professions.
And you have repeatedly failed to show that such laws exist in these places, despite being asked to.
Clearly the bias you have against trades people, or should we say, the "lesser educated".
Just opening up classes doesn't create an atmosphere where girls feel free to peruse those options. Convincing parents that their daughter would achieve well and that it's a good thing, making sure that you have teachers that are genuinely enthusiastic about having girls in their classes. Getting the girls themselves to understand that they have a viable option in the trades rather then it being man's work. There are a lot of things that schools can still do, all of which is *gasp* affirmative action.
The parts such as those mentioned above. The parts you keep ignoring in your focusing only on Quotas.
Again you show your misunderstanding of AA.
Primary reasons that studies have found are that men that do what is traditionally women's work are seen as less masculine, that the pay for such jobs is lower than equally skilled "men's work" that they could be doing instead, and that the work conditions are sub standard to other equivalent "men's work."
No it doesn't force them to hire them.
But the specific situation is a strawman because it isn't a real world situation, it's a concocted one that doesn't happen, unless the situation is that none of the black people who apply are as qualified as the white people
Well, if you read the Canadian Employment Equity Act, it mentions that employers targeted by the Act must "ensure that persons in designated groups achieve a degree of representation in each occupational group in the employer’s workforce that reflects their representation in the Canadian workforce, or those segments of the Canadian workforce that are identifiable by qualification, eligibility or geography and from which the employer may reasonably be expected to draw employees."
It follows that if 50% of the workforce is female, they must have 50% female employees, but you are correct that they do not specifically set the proportion in law.
but you are correct that they do not specifically set the proportion in law.
In order to fail, one must try. I hadn't tried yet because I thought these laws were common knowledge.