Here is a down payment on my promise for documentation/definition of placebo-
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Placebo
I am not using this Wikipedia article as evidence so much as a quick source for some initial citations that lead to more established sources of support for my position. I will find primary medical publications when I have more time, hopefully in the next hour or so.
My point at this stage is that a proper and correct current view of a
placebo is not something that has no "real" effect but is instead a stimulated treatment for a disease of other medical condition intended to deceive the patient. Not infrequently, this deception can result in actual improvements both in the patients perception of their health and in actual measures of their physiology. A placebo (as the term is now used in clinical trials) may indeed have no effect at all, only an effect on the patients perception (which, given that perception is the result of chemistry of the brain, is a still a real effect), or an effect on their physiological state that can be medically detected clinically. This can work on its own or to improve the response to a direct-acting drug. I will quote just one short part of the Wikipedia article right now:
"Brain imaging techniques done by Emeran Mayer, Johanna Jarco and Matt Lieberman showed that placebo can have real, measurable effects on physiological changes in the brain.[11]
Placebos can produce some objective physiological changes, such as changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and chemical activity in the brain, in cases involving pain, depression, anxiety, fatigue, and some symptoms of Parkinson’s. "
I will back this up. But I am even getting confused as to what we are arguing here because I thought my statement, that placebo treatments have documented effects, is nearly universally accepted.
Is our argument in this thread that the effects of placebo treatments on the mental state and viewpoint of a patient aren't "real?" Wouldn't that make any mental or emotional disorder not real? Are the effects of psycho-active drugs (say SSRIs) not real because they effect mood and not something independently measurable, such as blood pressure?
Or is the current argument that although we all accept that placebo treatments can affect a patient's mental state and viewpoint as to how they "feel" , a placebo cannot effect any physiologically measurable, "somatic" aspect of a patient?
Or are we even only arguing that the placebo
itself (i.e. a sugar pill) is not having an effect, but that the show and drama associated with its administration (the placebo
treatment) is what is having the effect? If os then we are arguing the fine points of a definition and I would be only to happy to agree that the placebo effect is not from the sugar pill but from the patient's awareness of the sugar pill (thought by the patient to be a true drug) is being administered.