caveman1917
Philosopher
- Joined
- Feb 26, 2015
- Messages
- 8,143
A simple analogy is that you thoroughly shuffle a deck of 52 playing cards, examine the sequence that was produced, and note that the probability that the shuffle would have produced that sequence if the shuffle were random is 1 in 8 × 1067; whereas, if the deck were rigged to produce that exact sequence, then the probability would be 1. Thus, the probabilities overwhelmingly demonstrate that the deck was rigged. The fallacy is that the shuffle had to produce some sequence, and you would have made the exact same remark no matter what sequence was actually produced. Thus the hypotheses that are actually being compared are (1) whether a random shuffle would produce some sequence vs. (2) whether a rigged shuffle would have produced the sequence that was actually observed. The probability of the observation under each hypothesis is 1, so the likelihood ratio is 1, and thus the observation has no power to discriminate between the hypotheses.
I disagree. Either a result always changes the relative probabilities between hypotheses, including the first time you get it, or it never does. Let S be the sequence produced by the deck, let HR be the hypothesis that the deck is random and HS that it is rigged to produce S. If you keep getting S time and time again then HS increases in probability while HR decreases, therefor if you get S a single time HS and HR also change that way.