When the word virgin in this case is the only time it is applied to men—then we look to what is the purpose of using this word —because of its strange application we are directed to take note.Men who have not defiled themselves with women.
This describes the men—(Complete Jewish Bible)--Rev 14:3 They were singing a new song before the throne and before the four living beings and the elders, and no one could learn the song except the 144,000 who have been ransomed from the world.
Rev 14:4 These are the ones who have not defiled themselves with women, for they are virgins; they follow the Lamb wherever he goes; they have been ransomed from among humanity as firstfruits for God and the Lamb;
Rev 14:5 on their lips no lie was found — they are without defect.
One has to look at the whole section—what makes these men special.
1) They have been ransomed.
2) They did not defile themselves with woman.
3) They did not lie
4) They are without defect.
5) They were the only ones who could sing the song
The word ransomed applies to all the redeemed. The redeemed do not defile themselves. The redeemed do not lie. The redeemed are blameless.
Well, no. Your "scriptures" clearly and unambiguously refer to the "144,000" as
παρθένοι (NOT
σαν παρθένες ["like virgins"]; NOT
τόσο καθαρό όσο παρθένες [""as pure as virgins"]; NOT EVEN
σεξουαλικά ενεργούς άνδρες ακόμα παντρεμένος με την πρώτη συζύγους τους ["sexually active men still married to their first wives"], but, unambiguously,
παρθένοι ["virgins"]).
To claim that the "scriptures" say anything else is to substitute what you
want to
pretend they mean for the words that are actually there--just as you do with your silly "dark skin comes form eating monkey meat" fantasy.
So as I have said, prophecy has its application at all times, what is prophesied then must be understood in the present age as well, otherwise it is superfluous.
Thank you for admitting that you are perfectly willing to substitute what you
want your "scriptures" to mean for what the actually say. Why even bother to pretend to refer to "scripture" at all, if you are going to change its meaning?
So today what applies to the 144k will apply to all men, that have repented and are justified, they are pure as Jesus stated---
According to your hopes, perhaps, but in no way according to anything in "scripture"...
Matt 5:8 "How blessed are the pure in heart! for they will see God.
Does not refer to "virgins", at all...do you think everyone who has not had sex is automatically pure of heart? Is that your only standard?
Philp_1:10 so that you will be able to determine what is best and thus be pure and without blame for the Day of the Messiah,
Also does not refer to "virgins". See above
2Tim_2:22 Flee the evil desires of youth, and pursue righteousness, faith, love and peace, along with those who call on the Lord out of a pure heart.
Also deos not refer to "virgins". See above.
Heb_13:4 Marriage should be honoured by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral.
Cannot refer to "virgins", unless you pretend that all "honourable" marriages are sexless and perfectly abstinent.
So the goal is that of a pure heart—but what I believe in this day and age that there are men who will qualify, maybe not many, but only a few is required to start with.
Oddly enough, "John's" "Revelation" refers to 144,000 "virgins". Period.
These will be those who are pure in heart as Jesus stated.
Are you claiming that Jesus is to be said to be said to have written the book of "John's" Revelation"?
If he did, he used the word "virgin" (not the term, "sexually active men still faithful to their first wife").
