Mojo
Mostly harmless
Why would an immaterial self necessarily be immortal?
It wouldn't. Hence Jabba's argument relies on a false dilemma.
Why would an immaterial self necessarily be immortal?
My reasoning for OOFLam being incorrect is that if OOFLam were reasonably possibly incorrect...
...the likelihood of OOFLam being correct would be unimaginably small (when applying the Bayesian formula).
Come on, seriously?Do you not see the problem with that?
Why would an immaterial self necessarily be immortal?
Dave,
- Almost.
- My reasoning for OOFLam being incorrect is that if OOFLam were reasonably possibly incorrect, the likelihood of OOFLam being correct would be unimaginably small (when applying the Bayesian formula).
You essentially say that if something might be wrong, it must be wrong. Are you sure you wanna claim that?
So your reasoning for OOFLam being incorrect is that if OOFLam were incorrect, the likelihood of OOFLam being correct would be unimaginably small. Have I got that right?
Dave,
- Almost.
- My reasoning for OOFLam being incorrect is that if OOFLam were reasonably possibly incorrect, the likelihood of OOFLam being correct would be unimaginably small (when applying the Bayesian formula).
Dave,Do you not see the problem with that?
I see what would appear to be a problem, but isn't.
Using the Bayesian formula for the posterior probability...
...we're ultimately comparing the prior probability of non-OOFLam to the likelihood of me -- given OOFLam...
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1518Dave,
- I see what would appear to be a problem, but isn't.
- Using the Bayesian formula for the posterior probability, we're ultimately comparing the prior probability of non-OOFLam to the likelihood of me -- given OOFLam -- and, the former (though, only 1%) easily wins.
- I see what would appear to be a problem, but isn't.
- Using the Bayesian formula for the posterior probability, we're ultimately comparing the prior probability of non-OOFLam to the likelihood of me -- given OOFLam -- and, the former (though, only 1%) easily wins.
- Using the Bayesian formula for the posterior probability, we're ultimately comparing the prior probability of non-OOFLam to the likelihood of me -- given OOFLam -- and, the former (though, only 1%) easily wins.
You cannot find a single mathematician, statistician, philosopher or nursery school teacher who agrees with you.
You should just ... just stop. Really.
Dave,Leaving aside that you have no justification for that 1% number, you already admitted that you're not using the likelihood of you given OOFLam. You're assuming OOFLam is incorrect in order to get a very small likelihood for you, and then calling it "given OOFLam" even though it relies on OOFLam being incorrect.
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Dave,
- I'm not assuming that OOFLam is incorrect -- I only need to assume that it might reasonably be incorrect.
It would be the same as the likelihood of anything forming anywhere ever.Even if you do, you still have to use OOFLam to get the likelihood of a particular self given OOFLam, and that likelihood would be figured out the same way as figuring out the likelihood of Mount Rainier existing in its current form.
1% is what I'm suggesting as the prior probability of OOFLam being incorrect...
Whether there is a soul or not would not change that numerator and that denominator...
js,
- I didn’t mean to claim that it would. I meant to claim just that OOFLam being incorrect would imply that there are immaterial souls.
- Once again, I’m not sure that I understand your point -- but if I do, my answer is the same as before: OOFLam is, in effect, addressing the possibility of an immaterial soul, and implying that there is no such thing. And therefore, OOFLam being wrong would imply that there is such a thing as an immaterial soul.
js,Your claim is false...
The point is that your probability calculation for your existence (as presented) does not change. It would be the same with or without souls.
In addition, your base logic is wrong. If A then ~B does not lead you to if ~A then B.