Nobody has made that claim. You created that strawman yourself.
No, I did not. Let's review:
the only thing worse than 'your mama died because the cure hadn't been invented yet' is 'your mama died because she couldn't afford the cure'.
Why is that worse?
If you think about it logically and not emotionally, you'll see that you have in backwards. In the former case, everyone in your mama's medical condition will die. In the latter case, only some people in your mama's medical condition will die. Why should any moral person prefer the former to the latter? They should not, obviously. The latter may be unfair, but the former is still objectively worse.
It's worse in terms of ethics, at the very least.
twinstead came up with the comparison, not me. I simply challenged his assertion. You supported his assertion. This isn't a straw man.
Why is it ethically worse to have a situation where fewer people die than more people die? That's not a straw man, that is literally your claim in response to my challenge to twinstead.
The actual question is: Are more dead people because the cure doesn't exist ethically superior to fewer dead people because some of those people can't afford the cure.
The hilighted part is the important part.
You've said that fewer dead people, because some people can't afford the cure is superior.
No. I've said fewer people dead is superior because there are fewer people dead.
I've said it's a flawed premise - you can't count people who are dead because a cure doesn't exist. You can't attribute cause to the nonexistence of a thing.
The only reason to do any comparison
at all is if we're able to do something to determine which scenario occurs. If one or the other alternative eventuates because of conditions outside of our influence, then a comparison is pointless, and there can be no ethical distinction between them. It's like saying sunny days are ethically preferable to cloudy days. You have made an ethical comparison between these two scenarios, which means you have implicitly agreed to the premise that there is something we can do to make one or the other occur.
If you think that we cannot, then you cannot assign an ethical preference for one or the other, the question simply becomes meaningless.
You've been applying this in an argument where you believe it is better to invest in technology so that at some point in the future it is possible that fewer people might die because we might find a cure. I'm all for investing in cures. But I don't think it makes any sense to attribute people who have died today and in the past to the non-investment in a non-existent cure.
That's not the relevant scenario. I'm not talking about the past, I'm talking about the future. The relevant scenario is this:
Option 1: allow companies to charge lots of money for new advanced medical technology, which will become cheaper over time. Companies invest in research, and develop a life-saving treatment for some disease. They charge lots of money for it at the start. Rich people with the disease spend that money, and live. Poor people with that disease cannot afford the treatment, and die, until at some further point in the future it becomes cheap.
Option 2: we do not allow companies to charge lots of money for new advanced medical technology. Investment in research is much slower. No treatment is developed for the above disease, or it is developed much later. People with the disease die, rich and poor alike, until much later.
Option 1 is more unequal, but fewer people die. Option 2 is more equal, but more people die.
twinstead's post suggests he prefers option 2. Your posts suggest you prefer option 2. Do you prefer option 2? I prefer option 1 because
fewer people die. Furthermore, I think we need not consider anything except the fact that
fewer people die in order to conclude that option 1 is preferable to option 2.
In this case, it is ethically superior to NOT DENY care to some people, given that a cure exists.
That was not one of the options presented by twinstead. Blame him if you think leaving it out was a mistake, not me.