annnnoid
Banned
- Joined
- Jan 1, 2010
- Messages
- 1,703
If you wish to return to our efforts to establish some common ground, from which we (you and I) can have a rational, meaningful discussion of "Science cannot explain X, therefore goddidit", then please do what you said you'd do (forest, trees, that sort of thing), and respond directly to my last post on this.
If you want to have a rational, meaningful discussion about ‘science can’t explain ‘X’ therefore goddidit’….
…perhaps you should stop unilaterally deciding that fundamentally relevant topics are conveniently out of bounds.
Whether we do or do not ‘discover’ the laws of physics.
…nope…not going to discuss that.
Whether there is any explicit relationship between the laws of physics and reality.
…nope…not going to discuss that.
And you just flat out ignored all this:
This
This
This
This
(etc.)
Here's what you wrote: "Quite obviously…the laws of physics have a direct causal relationship with the neural and cognitive activity that generates them."
And here's my response: "No, they don't. This is a mis-statement of what science - and "the laws of physics" - is. And, I might note, one you seem to be rather fond of making."
To me you are using the - WWDS? - fallacy of equivocation. In this case you significantly changed your claim, and misrepresented what I wrote. I have no time for such intellectually dishonest tactics.
I changed my claim???
The claim is very simple: All cognitive activity is explicitly associated with specific neural activity. IOW…cognitive activity is a function of neural activity.
Is there something in the slightest bit controversial or dubious about this statement? If so, perhaps you could point out where it is.
Since the laws of physics are an expression of cognitive activity…they must also be somehow related to specific neural activity. Neural activity is represented through bio-chemistry.
…thus, the laws of physics must have some manner of direct causal connection to explicit bio chemistry.
Obviously this is extremely simplistic…but it is also just as obviously…Science!
…and…the laws of physics, being cognitive activity, also fall within the purview of the range of study known as cognitive psychology.
Science…IOW.
…not philosophy.
Yes, it is an axiom of science that nature behaves in regular ways. Being an axiom it is not amenable to deductive certainty, but we can reason inductively that it seems to behave so.
No, but, we cannot say for sure that such instances do not or cannot exist, say beyond our light cone or at singularities or very close to, at or before the Big Bang.
…seems to…everywhere…except in singular areas that would be, by any definition and understanding, quite reasonably beyond any application of the laws of physics (or any understanding of any kind).
Thus…it is quite reasonable to conclude that- for all intents and purposes - everything-all-the-time can be represented by the laws of physics. IOW…regularity occurs everywhere according to exactly the same paradigm.
Sure - all laws of physics (models of reality) are invalid beyond their domain of applicability. I can't think of a single theory which does not have a finite domain of applicability.
…I’m assuming you did not notice that I said laws…with an ‘s’. Only a complete idiot could insist that any law be applicable outside its domain.
We observe reality and make imperfect models to describe what we observe.
Oh I see - it was a rhetorical question - you didn't really want my answer. I would like to request that the definition of inexorable is added to the long list of definitions of terms, which you use, but which you steadfastly refuse to define.
No, it's a blatant strawman.
…speaking of stawmen…why are you so reluctant to simply answer the question?
Where...do…we…get…the…laws…of…physics…from (your ‘answer’ does nothing more than beg the question)?
IOW…do we discover them?
Yes…or…no?
If you do not understand what is meant by ‘discover’, just go have a look in my earlier response to Jean Tate. I described it quite clearly there.
If that question is too explicit then try this one:
Does the available evidence support the conclusion that we discover them?
There is a relationship between what nature does and the laws of physics. Nature does what it does, and we observe it and develop imperfect models to describe what we observe. We call those the laws of physics. Whether that is a "direct" relationship or not depends on your definition of the word "direct". (Note that there is a narrower definition for a scientific law than we are using here - in the "laws of physics" I include hypotheses, theories, formulae, and laws as strictly defined - for the purposes of this discussion - I use the term that way because you have done so.)
…so is it appropriate to conclude that it seems as if there is, in fact, a direct relationship between the laws of physics and the reality that they describe?
I honestly cannot understand how anyone anywhere anyhow could ever come to any other conclusion. You have already agreed that, outside of a few singular cases (pre big-bang, outside of whatever we can receive any kind of signal from) everything can be described / predicted by these laws. You have yet to decide whether or not we ‘discover’ them…but no other conclusion can be logically arrived at since they are a direct function of something we, ourselves, do not create…(both subjectively and objectively)
….therefore there is no reasonable conclusion but that there appears to be a direct relationship (neurally the relationship is unconditionally direct but given it’s opaque nature it is not regarded as such).
When you shout words at me, it seems to be a reliable sign that you are talking nonsense. Remeber INDISPUTABLE? If the laws of physics "describe and predict EVERYTHING (for all intents and purposes) with all-but unconditional precision and accuracy", then the work of scientists is done. Since we all know that there is ever so much about the way the world goes that we don't know, then we can safely conclude that your assertion is tosh.
Whether I SHOUT words at you are sneak them in through ESP is irrelevant to the argument. That being…that EvErYtHiNg is, in fact, described and predicted by the laws of physics (for all intents and purposes). I’ve already asked you to present some area where they are invalid…
…all you could come up with is ‘before anything existed …and possibly outside of whatever we know of that exists’.
Like I said…for all intents and purposes. Why do you even bother with this idiotic challenges when they are so obviously academic! Nobody is going to claim that we know what laws applied pre-big bang or if there even is anything beyond what we can adjudicate. That is why I keep adding the qualification: ‘for all intents and purposes.’
Unconditional precision and accuracy and unqualified success, eh? Maybe science in some parallel universe can be described like that but not in this one.
…and this. Yet another example of a blatant strawman. The point is…as I’ve repeated endlessly…that the laws apply to just about everything from here to eternity and back (…is it really necessary to point out that this is a metaphor????). The entire world is quite literally inundated with evidence that supports the conclusion: The laws of physics work and they work extremely extremely extremely well.
What that means…is that our capacity for intellectual activity is extremely robust (cognition)…and our capacity to direct this intellectual activity at our environment is also extremely robust.
What that means is simply that the evidence in favor of a direct explicit relationship between our capacity to observe and what we observe is extremely robust.
…there is a relationship. The only thing lacking is the capacity to formalize it.
No, that's your strawman. (By the way, the laws that apply to the most minute, and the laws that apply to the most immense that we currently have are different laws and they are not compatible under certain conditions - so much for unqualified success, eh?)
…no, that’s your strawman. Like I said…is there anywhere that the laws of physics are invalid (apart from those areas where desperation might encourage a refuge; before or beyond the existence of anything).
“As people say, this is comforting possibility, but there is no reason to believe that, nothing in this theory tells us that. There is no limit for the validity of Quantum mechanics and we and other groups are actually exploring how far can we go and I’m sure we will go to sizes that our quite surprising.”
Anton Zeilinger
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