Nationalcosmopolitan
Illuminator
- Joined
- Apr 13, 2008
- Messages
- 3,510
There is no God to oppose
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I heard those words 40 years in the Soviet Union from many communists.
Today most of them are God Believers.
There is no God to oppose
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Good for you.I heard those words 40 years in the Soviet Union from many communists.
Today most of them are God Believers.
There is no god. Oh, and Hebrew.
No, you call a male beer, a he-brew.
That joke is older than me. Why did you not notice?No, you call a male beer, a he-brew.
You're delusional.
Except no one is doing anything to advance your goals. Hebrew.
What, is your google broken?
Good. The Turks abandoned the Arabic script which didn't suit their language because it is not very efficient at representing vowels. After the fall of the Ottoman regime, the Turkish Republic adopted the Latin alphabet (but not the Latin language.)
Now, does that mean that Turkish brains changed from the left to the right hemisphere? I don't think so. Do you require to reconstruct your brain each time you switch from writing a letter in Russian to writing one in HEBREW?
Perhaps you do need to do that!
I would love to know what sort of mangled sentence bathrobe without bathrobe is.
Besides I'm promoting my calendar which is 100x better than yours, Or in NC speak:
For sure people will to be shouting the holy ideas of 'eat every day' this is certain
Did your imaginary friend tell you this?
They are both Indo-European languages of the Satem group. See https://web.cn.edu/kwheeler/IE_Main2_Satem.html.Philosopher Alexander Piatigorsky told in his lections about Buddhist Philosophy that Sanskrit is very similar to Russian language.
It's not a question of "belief". Go and look it up.I do believe him very much because was a very known professor of Cambridge.
I notice you don't quote the Cambridge professor on that point, because it's complete nonsense.From another side I know very well that Russian language is very similar to Holy Resurrected Language of Holy Resurrected Israel.That’s why Sanscrit is very similar to Holy Resurrected Language.
If you mean, languages with writing, no they are not. Sumerian, and other languages written in cuneiform, as well as Ancient Egyptian, are much older.But Sanckrit and Holy Language are the most ancient languages.
That is absurd. Anyway by that argument Hebrew is not the Holy Language. Sumerian is. In fact the word "Eden" seems to be Sumerian.What of this 2 languages was the “mother language”?
This one that has more ancient writing.
That is completely moronic. Semitic languages had an alphabet very early. Undoubtedly it was invented by speakers of such languages; and that invention spread to many areas, including Greece and India. But that does not mean that Greek and Sanskrit are Semitic languages. This has been pointed out to you before, indeed many times.From Alexander Piatigorsky I know that Sanskrit writing has born in 3 century BC.
The writing of Holy Language has born in 13 century BC.
That’s why it is clear that God Holy Language is the “mother language” of Sanskrit.
Philosopher Alexander Piatigorsky told in his lections about Buddhist Philosophy that Sanskrit is very similar to Russian language.
I do believe him very much because was a very known professor of Cambridge.
From another side I know very well that Russian language is very similar to Holy Resurrected Language of Holy Resurrected Israel.
That’s why Sanscrit is very similar to Holy Resurrected Language.
But Sanckrit and Holy Language are the most ancient languages.
What of this 2 languages was the “mother language”?
This one that has more ancient writing.
From Alexander Piatigorsky I know that Sanskrit writing has born in 3 century BC.
The writing of Holy Language has born in 13 century BC.
That’s why it is clear that God Holy Language is the “mother language” of Sanskrit.
How can people believe in God "in a secular format"? If they do believe in God how can they possibly believe that an infinite eternal omniscient God has a particular language?Irrelevant question.
Think yourself.
Let's say a person believes in God in a religious or a secular format.
Suddenly he discovers that Language of his God that was dead for 2,500 years has resurrected and one of many God blieving nations has already spoken in this language for last 100 years.
Will this great fact generate in this man a very strong desire to teach his children this language?
I am convinced that yes of course.
No you didn't. #3340 is a regurgitation of the same gibberish.It will be correct to order to those experts to make the scientist researching about the kinship between Holy Language and Sanskrit.
But in my post #3340 I proved that Sanscrit is the “language-daughter ” of God Holy Language using another way.
I think you're being harsh, and missing an opportunity. We should go with Cosmo's excellent idea, and force everyone who professes any sort of Christian affiliations to learn Hebrew.
Just imagine what that would do for the next survey of religiosity! Atheism would be polling around 70 or 80 %![]()
The ones we might find would tell us that Sanskrit and Hebrew belong to two different language families.
NC is looking for language experts who will tell us that they belong to the same family, and that Indo-European languages entered Europe in the fifth century CE. It will take NC a long time to find such "experts", I fear.
He needs look only as far as the experts who think that Canada and Australia are in Europe. They are on the floor above the scientists who think that Salmonella and Fasting are good things. If they're not there check the cafeteria who's daily special is sheep **** and vodka.
The University of BullCrap.
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I know, I just wanted an excuse to use the word Hebrew again.
That is simply utter ignorant nonsense and complete drivel.... the discovery of the genetic relationship of the whole family of Indo-European languages is often attributed to Sir William Jones, a British judge in India who in a 1786 lecture (published 1788) observed that
The Sanskrit language, whatever be its antiquity, is of a wonderful structure; more perfect than the Greek, more copious than the Latin, and more exquisitely refined than either, yet bearing to both of them (i.e. Greek and Latin) stronger affinity, both in the roots of verbs and the forms of grammar, than could possibly have been produced by accident; so strong indeed, that no philologer could examine them all three, without believing them to have sprung from some common source, which, perhaps, no longer exists.
Ha ha ha [emoji23]
You really know how to tell them! Do you speak any other language to any degree? I especially refer to the ones you mention above?