Lord Language Resurrection.

[Nationalcosmopolitan]

Oh good, I can move to Iceland. I'll have a fort of tin foil to thwart the robots, dart firing cannons to pop the blimp temples and the only food available will be meat and fruit this way cosmos anemic army can't occupy us.

I hope you will not forget o make the referendum in Iceland about joining as the equal member of "New Saturday Great Union".
If Iceland will become the equal member of "New Saturday Great Union" it will be their 3 types of cities and towns.
1 Iceland national cities and towns.
2 Iceland language cosmopolitan cities and towns.
3 Iceland language as the main international cities and towns.
So you can choose according your wishes or type 1 or type 2 for your happy living place.

 

[Craig B]

Writing in Greece emerged in the second half of the 8th century BC from the letters of the Torah.
Iliad recorded in the 6th century BC.

Nonsense. The Greeks adopted Phoenician letters. These were also used for other Semitic languages, like Hebrew, when the Torah was compiled. The ancient Greeks had no knowledge of the Torah.

At this time, the text of the Pentateuch of Moses in the Holy Language of God already existed for 1,000 years.

It has been evident to scholars for several hundred years, that Moses could not have written the Torah, and it was not yet composed in his day - if he ever existed.

The traditional view that Moses was the author of the Torah came under increasing and detailed scrutiny in the 17th century. In 1651 Thomas Hobbes, in chapter 33 of Leviathan, cited several passages, such as Deuteronomy 34:6 ("no man knoweth of his sepulchre to this day", implying an author living long after Moses' death); Numbers 21:14 (referring to a previous book of Moses' deeds) and Genesis 12:6 ("and the Canaanite was then in the land", implying an author living in a time when the Canaanite was no longer in the land); and concluded that none of these could be by Moses. Others, including Isaac de la Peyrère, Baruch Spinoza, Richard Simon, and John Hampden came to the same conclusion, but their works were condemned, several of them were imprisoned and forced to recant, and an attempt was made on Spinoza's life.​

Anyway, none of this has anything to do with the origin of the word "Britain", which you have such ridiculous notions about.

 

[Craig4]

Writing in Greece emerged in the second half of the 8th century BC from the letters of the Torah.
Iliad recorded in the 6th century BC.
At this time, the text of the Pentateuch of Moses in the Holy Language of God already existed for 1,000 years.

Yet another fact you just made up. I think you're confusing creativity and dishonesty.

 

[Craig4]

I hope you will not forget o make the referendum in Iceland about joining as the equal member of "New Saturday Great Union".
If Iceland will become the equal member of "New Saturday Great Union" it will be their 3 types of cities and towns.
1 Iceland national cities and towns.
2 Iceland language cosmopolitan cities and towns.
3 Iceland language as the main international cities and towns.
So you can choose according your wishes or type 1 or type 2 for your happy living place.

Iceland is like every other country. They won't even discuss your idea and go about their business as if you never existed.

 

[wollery]

Writing in Greece emerged in the second half of the 8th century BC from the letters of the Torah.
Iliad recorded in the 6th century BC.
At this time, the text of the Pentateuch of Moses in the Holy Language of God already existed for 1,000 years.

No, the Greek alphabet was derived from the Phoenician alphabet, as was the Paleo-Hebrew alphabet, although the latter emerged first (although certainly not by 1000 years).

The date of the authorship of the pentateuch is controversial, with some talmudic scholars dating it to 1200 BCE, but the first known written versions date to about 700 to 800 BCE. There is no evidence of earlier written versions, and it is mostly an oral tradition before 600 BCE.

Please stop making crap up, it's just embarrassing for you.

 

[Nationalcosmopolitan]

Today I celebrate a year from the beginning of the 7th step of my great eating lifestyle.
It was Saturday of October 2014 and the fasting of the Day of Judgment.
6 days of next week I did not eat.
For this year I lived in "To eat only in the 7th Day lifestyle" 85% of all weeks of this year.
My minimal weight was 68 kg.
My weight in the 13 of September 2015 - the 1st Day of Jewish New Year was 74 kg.
My weight today - Simha Torah - the last day of New Year Holydays is 85 kg.
11 kg for those 23 days of celebration proves my very good health potential.

Long Live "To Eat Only in the 7th Day Lifestyle".

 

[Craig4]

Today I celebrate a year from the beginning of the 7th step of my great eating lifestyle.
It was Saturday of October 2014 and the fasting of the Day of Judgment.
6 days of next week I did not eat.
For this year I lived in "To eat only in the 7th Day lifestyle" 85% of all weeks of this year.
My minimal weight was 68 kg.
My weight in the 13 of September 2015 - the 1st Day of Jewish New Year was 74 kg.
My weight today - Simha Torah - the last day of New Year Holydays is 85 kg.
11 kg for those 23 days of celebration proves my very good health potential.

Long Live "To Eat Only in the 7th Day Lifestyle".

Except you aren't telling the truth about this.

 

[MRC_Hans]

Today I celebrate a year from the beginning of the 7th step of my great eating lifestyle.
It was Saturday of October 2014 and the fasting of the Day of Judgment.
6 days of next week I did not eat.
For this year I lived in "To eat only in the 7th Day lifestyle" 85% of all weeks of this year.
My minimal weight was 68 kg.
My weight in the 13 of September 2015 - the 1st Day of Jewish New Year was 74 kg.
My weight today - Simha Torah - the last day of New Year Holydays is 85 kg.
11 kg for those 23 days of celebration proves my very good health potential.

Long Live "To Eat Only in the 7th Day Lifestyle".

And what are you drinking?

Hans

 

[abaddon]

You cry and lugh in English.

LOLWUT? Crying or laughing are different in Russian? Would you like me to respond in Gaelic?

So you are a man of Anglo-Saxon mental civilization.

Nope. I'm a Celt. You simply don't like that because it demonstrates your notions to be nonsense.

I cry and laugh in the Russian language.
Therefore, I am a person of Russian mental culture.

ORLY? Please demonstrate the difference between Russian and "Anglo-saxon" crying and laughing.

 

[abaddon]

You have in your mind only English language.

Wrong. Is amadán thusa. Mar níl fhios agutsa cad is brí leis an fóclair sin.

Have all manner of fun translating that.

I have in my mind Holy Resurrected Language, Russian Language and English Language.

My language is more ancient. Away with your recent languages.

That's why I know many Russian words that have roots in Holy Language.

My language predates your so-called "Holy" language.

Unfortunately I do not live in English speaking environment.

That is obvious.

That's why I don't know so many words in English that have roots from Holy language.

Just because you don't know any does not allow you to make them up out of whole cloth.

 

[fagin]

Nope. I'm a Celt. You simply don't like that because it demonstrates your notions to be nonsense.

According to this you are actually a barbarian.

http://www.newstatesman.com/culture...s-no-such-thing-celt-s-why-we-had-invent-them

"There’s no such thing as a Celt – that’s why we had to invent them"

 

[abaddon]

According to this you are actually a barbarian.

http://www.newstatesman.com/culture...s-no-such-thing-celt-s-why-we-had-invent-them

"There’s no such thing as a Celt – that’s why we had to invent them"

Sorry but your opinion piece carries no weight and is flat out wrong in several claims. Well, all it's claims, TBH.

 

[fagin]

True, but it passes the time until cosmo's next dump.

 

[abaddon]

True, but it passes the time until cosmo's next dump.

Which one? The literal or figurative?

 

[ComfySlippers]

Which one? The literal or figurative?

Both as stinky and floaty as each other.

 

[bruto]

Which one? The literal or figurative?

Dropped or flung, take your pick.

 

[abaddon]

Dropped or flung, take your pick.

I would prefer not to pick at it. Who knows what septic pus may seep out of it.

 

[Nationalcosmopolitan]

It is not the satisfacted answer.
The synonym of "Great Britain" is "Great Union".

The root of the word "Britain" is the word from Torah "Brit" - How often do you have to be told - as I have done before - that this is utter rubbish. Wiki.

The modern Welsh name for the island is (Ynys) Prydain. This demonstrates that the original Common Brittonic form had initial P- not B- (which would give **Brydain) and -t- not -tt- (else **Prythain). This is best explained as containing a stem *pritu- (Welsh pryd, Old Irish cruith; < Proto-Celtic *kwritu-), meaning "shape, form", combined with an adjectival suffix. This leaves us with *Pritania

It has been speculated that the name of the island probably derives from the demonym of its inhabitants, which would be *Pritanī, singular *Pritanos, modelled on Latin Britannus, -i. It is further popularly supposed that this demonym may refer to some practice of body art or tattooing.​

It has nothing to do with the Hebrew word for "Union". The Celtic or pre-Celtic languages from which "Britsin" is derived do not belong to the Semitic family, but are quite different language groups. So what you are stating is completely nonsensical. In the nineteenth century there was a sect of insane people - the British Israelites - who used to propose nonsensical etymologies like yours. A few of them still exist. They resemble you in many ways, having fantasies about combining the British Empire with a resurrected Israel, as you wish to do with the US Empire in your New Saturday Great Union. According to wiki, these lunatics

... claim numerous links in historical linguistics between ancient Hebrew and various European place names and languages. As an example; proponents claim that “British” is derived from the Hebrew words “Berit” and “Ish”, and should therefore be understood as “Covenant Man”. These words have other roots and this interpretation of the Hebrew is incorrect. Another example is Rhys' assertion of equivalence between Cymry (the native Welsh name for the British) and Cimmerian, which is at odds with the generally accepted derivation of Cymry from an earlier Celtic form *kom-broges (lit. "with-land"), meaning "people of the same country", or compatriot; only the modern form of the word looks similar. Yet another example is the alleged connection between the Irish 'Tuatha Dé Danann' and the Tribe of Dan. Secular sources indicate that the true root of this phrase is the 'People of the Goddess Danu'.​

Your interpretation of "Britain" is an absurd fantasy. Please remove it from your mind at once.

Unfortunately it is impossible for you to understand me till in your mind will not be the Holy Resurrected Language (better as one of your native languages).
For example.
Many people think that the word "Slavs" have the root in the word “slave” because Slavs were the slaves of ancient German in 9th – 13th centuries.
But if the man know Russian and Holy Resurrected Language it is clear to him that the word “Slav” from the word “צלב “ - the “cross”.
So it became understandable to me that Slavs are cross dressed in the 9th century khazars.

 

[Nationalcosmopolitan]

Exactly.
Learning Arabic is emphasized in many Muslim schools for this reason.
Anyway, Abraham came from Ur, the Bible says. And naturally, in Ur they were not speaking Hebrew. Thus, the "original language" God chose to speak with to Adam and Eve was not Hebrew.


~Wikipedia's entry on "Ur"

Or am I wrong, and Hebrew was the language of Sumeria?

In the time of Muhammad the Holy Language was already died as Judah Sons speaking language for 1100 years.
It was the only reason why God gave Koran to Arabic on Arabic and not on His Holy Language of His Book of Books.

 

[Craig4]

Unfortunately it is impossible for you to understand me till in your mind will not be the Holy Resurrected Language (better as one of your native languages).
For example.
Many people think that the word "Slavs" have the root in the word “slave” because Slavs were the slaves of ancient German in 9th – 13th centuries.
But if the man know Russian and Holy Resurrected Language it is clear to him that the word “Slav” from the word “צלב “ - the “cross”.
So it became understandable to me that Slavs are cross dressed in the 9th century khazars.

No, this isn't right at all. The root of the word Slav is Medieval Latin for slave. You've lied about something else.

You pretend to have understanding of complicated things but you are too lazy to put in the real effort such understanding requires. Your work isn't good enough.