But what if in the "real world" Rudi had committed the burglary? How does anyone know that he did not. It appears to be that there was insufficient evidence to BARD convict him of such burglary, but that doesn't mean in the "real world" he didn't do it - by your standards. Therefore, if the police had planted his fingerprints in the lawyers' office, it wouldn't be framing - according to your standards. In your standards, we somehow know the state of the "real world" without needing to rely on evidence. (If we start to rely on evidence, then we are looking at the court world, which doesn't meet your ideal of definition.)
By my standards, and those of the US appeals courts, since there was insufficient evidence to convict BARD of burglary, but the police went and planted evidence to falsely make him appear guilty of burglary, that would be "framing". But if the police were to be prosecuted for the framing, the charge would be, for example, "official misconduct". That Rudy had been framed for burglary would not necessarily mean he was not guilty BARD of possession of stolen goods, if the evidence for that charge was valid and convincing.