Vortigern99
Sorcerer Supreme
This paragraph is from an article on Shigellosis, an intestinal infection which is causing some concern in the US at the moment:
Source: http://www.theverge.com/2015/4/2/8335021/Shigellosis-cdc-drug-resistant-intestinal-illness
Can the highlighted portion be accurate? How does a "newly developed resistance [pass] on to subsequent generations" in any sense, outside of long-debunked Lammarkian evolution theory? Is the writer of the article over-simplifying to the point of garbling the actual process? Please help me understand.
Drug resistance develops when bacteria comes into contact with antibiotics at doses that are too low to kill them. When that happens, bacteria adapts to the drug and passes their newly developed resistance on to subsequent generations. It’s unclear exactly why drug-resistant Shigella has increased in the US, but it’s likely that this has something to do with people who don’t finish taking the antibiotics that have been prescribed to them.
Source: http://www.theverge.com/2015/4/2/8335021/Shigellosis-cdc-drug-resistant-intestinal-illness
Can the highlighted portion be accurate? How does a "newly developed resistance [pass] on to subsequent generations" in any sense, outside of long-debunked Lammarkian evolution theory? Is the writer of the article over-simplifying to the point of garbling the actual process? Please help me understand.