maximara said:
Searching around I found a reference to this:
Rodney Werline (1999). The Transformation of Pauline Arguments in Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho. Harvard Theological Review, 92, pp 79-93. doi:10.1017/S0017816000017867.
Here is what the abstract says:
"In his Dialogue with Trypho, Justin extensively quotes the Jewish scriptures and includes several citations of logia of Jesus. Furthermore, while explicit citations from Paul are peculiarly absent from the text, Justin, writing from Rome, certainly knows Paul's writings in detail and uses them. Indeed, it seems that the Dialogue provides a perfect occasion for him to employ Paul because in it he addresses the relationship between Judaism and the church, a central topic in both Romans and Galatians. Besides the appearance of Pauline quotations, several of Justin's arguments directly rely on Paul's thinking. For example, Justin probably has Galatians 3 before him as he composes Dialogue 95–96. Oskar Skarsaune's analysis of Justin's writing also indicates that Romans is one of Justin's preferred sources for quotations of the Jewish scriptures; that is, he sometimes quotes the Jewish scriptures as they appear in Paul rather the LXX. He draws especially from the Jewish scriptures quoted in Romans 2–4 and 9–11 because the chapters examine the problem of Torah and the Jews' rejection of the gospel, also two important issues in the Dialogue."
So the claim Justin Martyr did not cite or know Paul is...not accurate.
points: One, thanks Maximara, well done, appreciate your time and effort to address the question of evidence supporting the legend that Paul wrote before Mark.
That is not meant to shortchange IanS' rejoinder, that it is completely a waste of bandwidth to argue this idea.
I simply have an interest in resolving this point, and right now, I am firmly on the side of dejudge, who has, in my opinion, done an admirable job, highlighting the rationale for considering that Paul's letters were issued, after, not before, Mark's gospel. To my way of thinking this issue underlies the main focus of the thread, was Jesus an historical person. A lot of the argument supposedly attesting to Jesus' human existence, is derived from Paul's letters.
I will address the quote above, momentarily, but, first, I notice, Maximara, that you ignored, again, the thrust of my comments regarding both Luke, and Justin Martyr:
1 Timothy, (ostensibly written by Paul), quoting Luke 10:7 regards grafe, γραφη, as "Scripture", and therefore quotes from it. Do you, maximara, regard γραφη, as "Scripture"?
waters said:
How do you know that Justin quoted 2 Thessalonians, and not the other way around? Isn't 2 Thessalonians another highly contested letter, in terms of authorship?
Now to your conclusion:
maximara said:
So the claim Justin Martyr did not cite or know Paul is...not accurate.
Nope. Clearly I believe, based on what little I have read, that Justin Martyr had not quoted Paul's epistles. I will need to read Werline's thesis, and I have not yet begun to do that. So, I am ill-prepared to offer a proper refutation of his argument, but, he does write:
Rodney Werline said:
...while explicit citations from Paul are peculiarly absent from the text,...
Let me translate that into ordinary English:
Folks, come right up, take a good long gander at this here snake oil. Yessir. Guaranteed 100% pure snake oil. Cures menstrual irregularity, and male infertility.
Maximara, your conclusion is wrong. Yes, his text is not in agreement with my supposition. That may well indicate that my premise is either flawed, or false, but it also could mean, instead, that Werline's conclusion is inadequate, incorrect, or misleading.
We cannot assert that Darwin is "not accurate", based on the text of Genesis? right? My conclusion may well be shown inaccurate, incomplete, or completely wrong. Fine. But that demonstration hasn't yet been accomplished. Werline's text, as quoted here, is meaningless, in addressing the question of whether or not Justin Martyr had one or more of Paul's epistles before him, as he wrote, Dialogue, and Apology 1 & 2.
Werline said:
Justin, writing from Rome, certainly knows Paul's writings in detail and uses them.
So, he is assuming the very fact which we seek to validate. "General motors cars' ignition switches are certainly without any problem." How did that work out?
Yes, if you begin by writing, X = Y, then, is it not clear that Mr. Werline is not writing an article attempting to demonstrate that X = Y. He assumes it, and states it as a given. He no more needs to prove that, than he would need to prove the obvious: The sun moves around the earth.
Perhaps for 99.999% of the world, X does = Y, and Justin did indeed have Paul's epistles in front of him. I may be only one of two people on the planet who deny that there is a scintilla of evidence supporting this conclusion. I certainly do not accept one word of Werline's logic:
Rodney Werline said:
Besides the appearance of Pauline quotations, several of Justin's arguments directly rely on Paul's thinking. For example, Justin probably has Galatians 3 before him as he composes Dialogue 95–96.
To my way of thinking, this logic is flawed. We need x --> y, not x <--> y. Werline cannot disprove the converse, that "Paul" had Justin's text before him, as he wrote his epistles.
Oskar Skarsaune's analysis of Justin's writing also indicates that Romans is one of Justin's preferred sources for quotations of the Jewish scriptures; that is, he sometimes quotes the Jewish scriptures as they appear in Paul rather the LXX.
What????
Utterly foolish.
We need a chart, three items would suffice, three instances, where Skarsaune claims abc. For each of these three instances, we need to see six columns: Justin, LXX, Paul, Masoretic text, Leningrad codex, DSS.
The extant LXX, for example in Codex Sinaiticus, has certainly been corrupted by Christians, living two centuries after Justin Martyr.
My claim, without data of course, is that if anyone copied someone else, it was "Paul" who copied Justin Martyr, not vice versa. More likely, in my opinion, is that Justin and "Paul" both relied on whatever version of the Torah had been available, and used it. If I quote from Merchant of Venice, and maximara quotes from the same play, how likely is it that our quotes, based on the specific issue of societal recognition or denial of the perception of hostility to Jews, will be almost identical? Does that mean, then, that I copied maximara's text?