And as I said the last time you brought this up, Jesus was different to those Greek gods in that he supposedly lived in the recent past and interacted with known contemporaries like John the Baptist, Pilate, Caiaphas, James and Peter etc. He wasn't a folkloric hero from the distant past to Paul.
Craig B said:
That's because "Christ" is not a divine title or attribute. It is the designation of a purely human status or vocation, attributed for example to Cyrus King of Persia in Isaiah 45:1.
Thus Pliny finds it necessary to note that adherents of the sect he was investigating "sing hymns to the christ as to a god". This was indeed a noteworthy peculiarity, distinguishing these people from messianic Jews or other messianists.
IanS said:
But the evidence for Jesus is not merely "sparse", it's non-existent. There is no evidence of a human Jesus known to any of the biblical writers, or to any of the people named or mentioned in the bible. Nobody in the bible ever reliably claimed to have met Jesus. There is actually NO evidence of him.
No
contemporary evidence.
It is also noteworthy, that those living in his purported time frame did not mention him, despite mentioning many others with similar or even less dramatic claims of singularity.
Yang GuiFei
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yang_Guifei , who lived in the 8th century CE, was a genuine historical figure, murdered, despite having committed no offense, while still serving as consort to the Emperor, a service enacted via compulsion, rather than earnest application.
Kiritsubo Kōi, on the other hand, mother of Hikaru Genji, though possessing many of the attributes of Yang GuiFei, nevertheless is a purely fictional character, invented by Murasaki Shikibu, in tribute to Yang GuiFei's heroism and sacrifice.
Was Zeus a living person. I doubt it. Was the picture of Zeus, portrayed by writers for centuries, modeled after a living man? I doubt it. Was Herakles modeled after a living person, like Kiritsubo Koi? I doubt it. Was Jesus of Nazareth modeled after a living person?
I deny it. Jesus was modeled after the life story of a fictional character, Herakles. Where's the human model for Jesus? Where's the template? Like Jesus, Herakles shares an omnipotent supernatural deity as father: Zeus/YHWH. Herakles and Jesus share the following traits in common:
mother: human --check,
performed miracles, casually, in stride: --check,
basically good guy, not seeking to harm others: --check
lots of arduous tasks to accomplish before death: --check
encounters with wily, dangerous, supernatural foes: --check
resurrection following death: --check
ascension post mortem to mount Olympus to live with his father : check
None of this nonsense is historically documented, of course. It is simply elaborated in a fictional account--the gospels, in the best tradition of Homer's fables about the Trojan War. So, no,
Jesus was not different from Greek mythological characters. And, no, Pliny the Younger's letter to Emperor Trajan neither identifies Jesus, nor eliminates other messianists, of that era, since "christ" simply refers to anointment, a common procedure in that era. Do we know the provenance of Pliny's letters? How do we know that the reference to Christians does not reflect a change from "Chrestians", in Pliny's original letter?
Have you examined P45?
http://www.csntm.org/manuscript/zoomify/GA_P45?image=P45_005a_w.jpg&page=2#viewer
If you do, I think you may be impressed by the quantity of words encountered, without meeting the name, Ἰησοῦς, anywhere in the text.
For example, below is Mark 5:20, which is included among the handful of leaves comprising this precious, ancient papyrus text.
I have not yet actually located this particular passage, in searching the online images, so if someone does find it, please provide a link. The link here, above, is, instead to Mark 6.
Mark 5:20 Byzantine bible
Καὶ ἀπῆλθεν καὶ ἤρξατο κηρύσσειν ἐν τῇ Δεκαπόλει ὅσα ἐποίησεν αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· καὶ πάντες ἐθαύμαζον.
You will not observe this text if you consult with our most ancient source, Codex Sinaiticus:
Mark 5:20
και απηλθεν και ηρξατο κηρυϲϲει εν τη δεκαπολι ο ϲα εποιηϲεν αυ
τω ο
ιϲ και παντεϲ εθαυμαζον
Missing: Ἰησοῦς, replaced by ιϲ with a superscript. Is that nomen sacrum supposed to impress us, as being Jesus of Nazareth? Ok, fine, consider me impressed. However, I do not interpret that sentence as indicating Jesus of Nazareth.
Is it the same guy discussed in Pliny's letter to Trajan? I don't know, did Pliny write ιϲ with a superscript? How do we determine authenticity? Tradition? How do we know what Pliny really intended to communicate?
How do we know what Pliny had actually observed? Don't we rely on what Pliny has written? Well, then, who is this "Christ"? Does P45 contradict me? Does a document written a century before Codex Sinaiticus, refer to Ἰησοῦς? Does P45 describe ιϲ as having been born in Bethlehem? If not, what about Ἰησοῦς? How do we know that this is not two different folks?