You obviously haven't read this entire thread. I have stated on a number of occasions that my belief is that the stain had been deposited on the pillow prior to Meridith being placed on the pillow. I even mentioned that the timing could be up to however long it takes semen to dry to where it is no longer trackable. But I stated that it would be up to Rudy to come out with a statement explaining why his semen was on the pillow under the dead girl before the semen is definately linked to him otherwise nobody is going to accept his answer as anything other a futile attempt to squirm out of the shame of being known as a necrophilliac. In other words, there is a solution but you haven't been able to come up with it. I suggest you write to Rudy if you want this explained.
Just a moment. You are not giving any solution.
You are basically admitting you have none.
How you defend your lack of solution? By surrounding it with a circle of unproven postulates. You inject one more unproven postulate, following others, that is that Guede would be a necrophiliac. It's unproven, but you use it as an argument to back another unproven assumption. Then you add some further consideration that is allowing the murderer may have remained in the room for possibly a fairly long time (this is contrary to the evidence of Nara Capezzali's testimony, which is backed by Monacchia's and which you are totally unable to disprove).
And this going agaisnt the evidence, for what? What is the purpose of those unproven postulates contradicting the evidence findings? What explanation do you get through them?
None.
By those considerations you are just diverting from the point, you are trying to go around it. If the stain was deposited on the pillow before this was placed under her body, what happens to the interpretation about the pillow, the theory that it was allegedly placed under her hips so Guede could help himself, better masturbate or commit a violence on her body?
Now, in the updated version he already had an orgasm? He already finished, before placing the pillow under her body? Is that a realistic dynamic, even from physiological and motivational POV (he ejaculates
elsewhere - not on the body nor close to the genital area but on a pillow - and then places the pillow close to the genital area, only
subsequently to that, after he has already finished)? And why?
If so, then for what purpose was the pillow placed there? And what happens with the defensive argument that hinged on pointing out how the semen stain was near the genital area? The whole logical construct build around this detail falls into disarray.
That would produce an inconsistence at the root of the whole logical argumentation, but that's not the only problem. The other problem would be to make your scenario become consistent with
an absence of Rudy Guede's shoeprints near Meredith's body,
except for those belonging to the trail of prints walking out from the room.
You place 5 bloody shoeprints on the pillow. You place them there at a time that you consider prior to placing the pillow under the body. But the pillow was indeed placed under the body (which was clean etc.) at a certain subsequent point. Hence, you need to have Guede doing some other activity during this time in between, between the two moments of stepping on the pillow first, and then lift her body, pick the pillow from where it was and place the pillow under her body next. He needs to walk somewhere, he needs to make some step, to move to perform this operation.
We note that, in this scenario, he must have his shoes already dirty with blood (since he left the prints on the pillow).
So where is the evidence of other steps? Where are his other shoeprints? he didn't take any other step in the room, except the five shoeprints on the pillow.
There is not even a shoeprint of him walking towards the bathroo, where you believe he washed himself.
When i discussed the shower I surmised that Rudy would use a towel to pat dry his trowsers. I have also pointed out the drips that are visible and not otherwise explained.
But there are no drips. I mean, especially there are no drips that follow his steps.
There are actually not even his steps: because he was barefoot, and the only bloody footprints that you allow are on the bathmat. Why nowhere else?
Then, given that he put on his shoes again, one should wonder why the shoes are still dirty with blood.
Did he get his shoes dirty with blood
twice? The first time, before placing the pillow under Meredith's body, and the second time after he entered the room again after he washed himself up in the bathroom?
And, as for the drips, how did he manage to prevent his trousers from dripping bloody water, which would have been detected by luminol, as he walked out? Bear in minde that in your scenario he wouldn't be able to prevent even his bare
foot from dripping on the bathmat. Yet you postulate that his trousers were not dripping around. Despite he just washed them udner the shower.
You are being disingenuous to imply that I have not covered the failure of ILE to detect and mark the continuation of the bloody shoeprints. We had a long discussion on this very point. (perhaps that was a different Machiavelli)
The trail of bloody shoeprints is very, very clear. By the way, it is also clear that you even "forgot" how one of the shoeprint was visible only by half, the other half - close to Merediht's door - was only visible through luminol, this factually showing that a washing up of the floor did take place.
Where is your claim for the timing of sexual violence coming from? In my summary I didn't even mention it.
How can you assume that a sexual violence was committed on a dying person, when there is evidence of superficial bruising, indicating a good blood pressure?
