Is ESP More Probable Than Advanced Alien Life?

…of course not. Not even close.

For lunch today I ate some cheese. I am 100% percent confident that this memory is not fallible.

Are you actually going to agree that every memory you have is fallible? What did you do an hour ago? At lunch time? I’m sure I could ask you any number of questions about your life and activates…all of which you could answer without the slightest risk of ‘fallibility’.

Therefore…quite obviously…any of us, anywhere, anytime, can provide innumerable examples of recollections that we are 100% percent confident of, and be 100% confident that we are 100% confident.

So much for Nonpareil’s claim.

Fallibilty only refers only to the possibility of being wrong and says nothing about the probability of being wrong.

People's beliefs about experiences that seem to confirm ESP are a lot more complex that remembering what you had for breakfast yet for believers confidence remains equally strong.
 
...all you have to do is provide one piece of evidence (or a mountain of evidence...I don't care what it is) that conclusively establishes that even a single event is fraudulent (that what someone says they experienced is not what they experienced).
I know for a fact that you cannot even begin to do this and I know, and can very effectively argue, why that is the case. As for the other couple of hundred million, I'll be back later.

No one on Earth has ever lied?
 
I understand Bayesian statistics, I just question the application.

One can look for life outside the solar system, one can test for ESP.

So Bayesian statistics are un-needed.
:)


That's one of the more sensible things anyone's said about Bayesian statistics in this thread.


More like one of the most ignorant, given Bayesian statistics' historical roots in astronomy and the fact that it is still used in that field.
 
...all you have to do is provide one piece of evidence (or a mountain of evidence...I don't care what it is) that conclusively establishes that even a single event is fraudulent (that what someone says they experienced is not what they experienced).

I know for a fact that you cannot even begin to do this and I know, and can very effectively argue, why that is the case. As for the other couple of hundred million, I'll be back later.

You ever hear of a man who called himself The Amazing Kreskin? He demonstrated abilities that mimic some types of ESP. He readily admitted it was a trick.
How about a man called J.Randi who managed to duplicate the telekinetic abilities of Uri Geller. He also proclaims its a trick.

Those are facts.
 
Then perhaps you should explain how.

The statement in dispute deals with "demonstrable." It also deals with "distinguishable" in the capacity of a requirement for something to be demonstrable. "Distinct" can be reasonably used as a requirement for both demonstrable and distinguishable, either way, but is generally used in a slightly different way. Either way, before going further than that, I think that we should verify something. Are you still standing by your statement that not demonstrable to exist = does not exist? If so, I'll retract my moving the goalposts claim, even though I think that the arguments that you employed are ill-suited to supporting that and much better suited for making slightly different claims, as I've described.

What is honest about claiming that gravity leprechauns might be the true explanation?

I actually didn't claim that, given the second part of the objections. What you quoted addressed the overall point that you looked like you were trying to make.

Again, we're getting back to the issue of definitions. By any functional definition of "exist", we know that gravity leprechauns do not exist. To repeat: we know gravity leprechauns do not exist. The fact that they are by definition undetectable means that there is literally no difference between them and any other imaginary entity - which means that claiming that they are real is incoherent.

Incoherent isn't quite the word. I will agree that claiming that they are real will, in fact, be fallacious and unsupportable. What's in question is whether claiming that such an entity is definitely not real, rather than simply dismissible from serious consideration, is similarly fallacious, though. My position is that it is, given that at the core, it invokes the same flawed logic that claiming that it's real does. Evidence based arguments, with parsimony included in the mix, inform us rather well about how reasonable it is to believe that something is or is not the case. That's slightly different from making direct claims about their objective existence. Also, evidence based arguments are simply not applicable when there is no relevant evidence obtainable. To avoid rendering the point meaningless on a practical scale, I do agree that it's reasonable to call something false if it has solid evidence against it and no solid evidence for it. In your example, though, there is no such evidence. To bring this back to ESP for direct relevance, though, it's worth remembering that ESP is an umbrella term that includes many diverse, though fairly loosely related concepts, rather than a single thing that can be dealt with directly. Some of those can, in fact, be simply called false for practical purposes, primarily due to the evidence of absence where evidence could reasonably be expected to be found and lack of solid evidence to support them. Others can be dismissed via parsimony but not actually supported or opposed, on the other hand. Combining two or more groups and trying to claim that a statement that's true for at least one group but not for all is true for all is an inherently fallacious thing to do, regardless of the subject, and frankly, I don't like invoking fallacies.


If you cannot, even in theory, show that something is true, it is false. That's what false means.

If it cannot be shown to be true even in theory because of lack of relevant information and the ability to gather relevant information, no, that is very much not what false means. In such a case, the lack of knowledge and evidence is the meaningful point of focus. In cases where there is relevant knowledge and evidence, then one can focus on how true or false something is, yes. These are not such cases, though.

No. No, it doesn't.

You made two sets of contradictory assertions, but didn't actually show that the second was in any way a conclusion from the first, nor could the first set reasonably lead to the second with what's given. Thus, one has to deal with them both as mutually contradictory premises.

Why would you have to let your emotions interfere with the question as quoted below?

Why would you ask a question when the answer is within the question and the answer has already been repeatedly and directly pointed out by the person you're asking? Given your history, it's because you want to try to use the answer fallaciously. Nothing to do with my emotions. Everything to do with your posting history.

Why is this question bad? It follows naturally from your post.

Not surprised that it's you who asks, at all. Still, you're not Daylightstar, so you'll get a bit more of an answer. The answer is in the question as a matter of definitions. To rephrase the question to make the issue more clear without changing the meaning of the question at all, "Can you demonstrate something that's not demonstrable in the first place?"

If you couldn't see the answer to that from the start, that's really too bad for you. Going further than that, the answer to that adds nothing at all to the discussion, given that it's been out in the open the whole time.
 
Last edited:
I'm going to deal with this a bit out of order and may not completely, given that I should likely sleep soon.



Or, you chose your wording poorly.



Demonstrable, for all practical purposes, involves the thing in question being distinguishable from other explanations, to start with, not simply detected, as it looks like you tried to shift the goalposts to by the end of your post. Regardless, more than a few things have been detected in the past and incorrectly attributed to some seemingly more reasonable explanation at the time. Moving on from that, if something, by its nature, has not been demonstrated and couldn't realistically be distinguished from other explanations that can be separately demonstrated, for whatever reason, it's not really demonstrable. This may, indeed, be because it doesn't exist or is not the case, however, conceptually, that's not at all the only reason why something may not be distinguishable from other explanations, hence why it's not by definition that it doesn't exist if it's not demonstrable.


In the case of your p-zombie example, you have part of a point. Indeed, there's not really any difference between a p-zombie and an "actual" consciousness for any practical purpose and where there might be a claimed difference, frankly, there's not really a basis for that claimed difference that cannot be easily shown to be special pleading. In that case, it is indeed reasonable to point out that the hypothetical is fundamentally fallacious.

The first problem that you actually run into here, though, is that you really didn't demonstrate that the hypothetical that I used is in any way fallacious or unreasonable to use.



Good to have that cleared up a bit, though what you're saying in the quoted does directly contradict the wording you chose to use here -



in the context of you disputing the point that I was making, namely, that objective existence is not reasonable to consider to be dependent on an arbitrary subjective perspective or set of perspectives. As a note, at no point did I say in the example that we could not find any evidence that it exists, nor that evidence could not be found if there was a magical way to travel to somewhere that it could. Merely that we couldn't interact with it in any relevant way to determine whether life existed in it based on the limits imposed on us by physical reality.

The statement in dispute deals with "demonstrable." It also deals with "distinguishable" in the capacity of a requirement for something to be demonstrable. "Distinct" can be reasonably used as a requirement for both demonstrable and distinguishable, either way, but is generally used in a slightly different way. Either way, before going further than that, I think that we should verify something. Are you still standing by your statement that not demonstrable to exist = does not exist? If so, I'll retract my moving the goalposts claim, even though I think that the arguments that you employed are ill-suited to supporting that and much better suited for making slightly different claims, as I've described.



I actually didn't claim that, given the second part of the objections. What you quoted addressed the overall point that you looked like you were trying to make.



Incoherent isn't quite the word. I will agree that claiming that they are real will, in fact, be fallacious and unsupportable. What's in question is whether claiming that such an entity is definitely not real, rather than simply dismissible from serious consideration, is similarly fallacious, though. My position is that it is, given that at the core, it invokes the same flawed logic that claiming that it's real does. Evidence based arguments, with parsimony included in the mix, inform us rather well about how reasonable it is to believe that something is or is not the case. That's slightly different from making direct claims about their objective existence. Also, evidence based arguments are simply not applicable when there is no relevant evidence obtainable. To avoid rendering the point meaningless on a practical scale, I do agree that it's reasonable to call something false if it has solid evidence against it and no solid evidence for it. In your example, though, there is no such evidence. To bring this back to ESP for direct relevance, though, it's worth remembering that ESP is an umbrella term that includes many diverse, though fairly loosely related concepts, rather than a single thing that can be dealt with directly. Some of those can, in fact, be simply called false for practical purposes, primarily due to the evidence of absence where evidence could reasonably be expected to be found and lack of solid evidence to support them. Others can be dismissed via parsimony but not actually supported or opposed, on the other hand. Combining two or more groups and trying to claim that a statement that's true for at least one group but not for all is true for all is an inherently fallacious thing to do, regardless of the subject, and frankly, I don't like invoking fallacies.




If it cannot be shown to be true even in theory because of lack of relevant information and the ability to gather relevant information, no, that is very much not what false means. In such a case, the lack of knowledge and evidence is the meaningful point of focus. In cases where there is relevant knowledge and evidence, then one can focus on how true or false something is, yes. These are not such cases, though.



You made two sets of contradictory assertions, but didn't actually show that the second was in any way a conclusion from the first, nor could the first set reasonably lead to the second with what's given. Thus, one has to deal with them both as mutually contradictory premises.



Why would you ask a question when the answer is within the question and the answer has already been repeatedly and directly pointed out by the person you're asking? Given your history, it's because you want to try to use the answer fallaciously. Nothing to do with my emotions. Everything to do with your posting history.



Not surprised that it's you who asks, at all. Still, you're not Daylightstar, so you'll get a bit more of an answer. The answer is in the question as a matter of definitions. To rephrase the question to make the issue more clear without changing the meaning of the question at all, "Can you demonstrate something that's not demonstrable in the first place?"
If you couldn't see the answer to that from the start, that's really too bad for you. Going further than that, the answer to that adds nothing at all to the discussion, given that it's been out in the open the whole time.

You are not answering the question which flows naturally from your hilited paragraph where you say, in a contorted manner that a thing may exist even if it can't be demonstrated to exist.
 
You are not answering the question which flows naturally from your hilited paragraph where you say, in a contorted manner that a thing may exist even if it can't be demonstrated to exist.

And which question is that? I'm not seeing that the question that you highlighted is something that could be said to flow at all naturally from that, unless you're completely not paying attention.

ETA: To add to that, the answer to the highlighted question is there, anyways, quite frankly, which makes this claim even more demonstrably false.
 
Last edited:
Why don't unviersities give a dam about ESP research and the Nobels that would come their way if they showed evidence of ESP in any shape?


Because there is not even a sniff of anything interesting in all the work that has been done.

Need to add a slight expansion to your questions:

Why don't universities any longer give a dam about ESP research and the Nobels that would come their way if they showed evidence of ESP in any shape?​

Universities did, industry did and the military did look into the claims of ESP and other magic, all they found was very mundane explanations and claims that evaporated as controls were tightened.

This is something that keeps coming up in discussions like this i.e. some folks simply don't realise what work has been done and what the results were and are.

We looked for ESP and what we found was mundane human behaviour. So now until we have different evidence for the claims of magic there is simply no reason to look again.
 
…of course not. Not even close.

For lunch today I ate some cheese. I am 100% percent confident that this memory is not fallible.

Are you actually going to agree that every memory you have is fallible? What did you do an hour ago? At lunch time? I’m sure I could ask you any number of questions about your life and activates…all of which you could answer without the slightest risk of ‘fallibility’.

Therefore…quite obviously…any of us, anywhere, anytime, can provide innumerable examples of recollections that we are 100% percent confident of, and be 100% confident that we are 100% confident.

So much for Nonpareil’s claim.

What did you have for breakfast on 14th January 2001? And what colour socks did you wear?
 
And which question is that? I'm not seeing that the question that you highlighted is something that could be said to flow at all naturally from that, unless you're completely not paying attention.
...

What tsig hilited was to indicate how you did not answer the question I asked you.
Which went like this:
... hence why it's not by definition that it doesn't exist if it's not demonstrable.
...
Can you give an example of something that exists but is not demonstrable (not: demonstrated to exist)?
To which I added:
...
Perhaps the bracketed part could be clearer, it means that "not demonstrable" does not equate with "not demonstrated to exist".
...

My question does indeed flow naturally from your claim.

Not only did you not answer the question, you changed it into something you believed suited you better, proclaiming that it makes no difference.

You haven't answered the question
Please answer the question in the context of your claim, as it was presented to you with later addition, see above and below:
... hence why it's not by definition that it doesn't exist if it's not demonstrable.
...
Can you give an example of something that exists but is not demonstrable (not: demonstrated to exist)?
To which I added:
...
Perhaps the bracketed part could be clearer, it means that "not demonstrable" does not equate with "not demonstrated to exist".
...
 
Last edited:
Either way, before going further than that, I think that we should verify something. Are you still standing by your statement that not demonstrable to exist = does not exist?

No. I stand by my claim that not capable of being demonstrated under any circumstance is equal to not existing.

Because that's what existing is.

I actually didn't claim that, given the second part of the objections. What you quoted addressed the overall point that you looked like you were trying to make.

You are still missing that point. I have not said that you claimed gravity leprechauns exist.

What is honest about claiming that they do? Or even that they might?

Incoherent isn't quite the word.

Incoherent is precisely the word, though you can also substitute "self-contradictory" with equal validity. Again, it is the p-zombie issue: the definition contradicts itself, and thus the concept is incoherent.

I will agree that claiming that they are real will, in fact, be fallacious and unsupportable. What's in question is whether claiming that such an entity is definitely not real, rather than simply dismissible from serious consideration, is similarly fallacious, though.

It's not.

Because that's what real means.

My position is that it is, given that at the core, it invokes the same flawed logic that claiming that it's real does. Evidence based arguments, with parsimony included in the mix, inform us rather well about how reasonable it is to believe that something is or is not the case. That's slightly different from making direct claims about their objective existence. Also, evidence based arguments are simply not applicable when there is no relevant evidence obtainable.

If there is no relevant evidence obtainable, then it's not real.

That's what real means.

To avoid rendering the point meaningless on a practical scale, I do agree that it's reasonable to call something false if it has solid evidence against it and no solid evidence for it. In your example, though, there is no such evidence.

Yes, there is.

There is a perfectly well-supported phenomenon that explains gravity (the curvature of spacetime in the presence of mass). There is no evidence - or any ability to procure evidence, even in theory - for gravity leprechauns.

That is evidence against them.

To bring this back to ESP for direct relevance, though, it's worth remembering that ESP is an umbrella term that includes many diverse, though fairly loosely related concepts, rather than a single thing that can be dealt with directly. Some of those can, in fact, be simply called false for practical purposes, primarily due to the evidence of absence where evidence could reasonably be expected to be found and lack of solid evidence to support them. Others can be dismissed via parsimony but not actually supported or opposed, on the other hand. Combining two or more groups and trying to claim that a statement that's true for at least one group but not for all is true for all is an inherently fallacious thing to do, regardless of the subject, and frankly, I don't like invoking fallacies.

Which is why I am dealing with each claim on a case-by-case basis, and why I have said that ESP believers are free to provide their own definition.

This entire thing was in response to jt512 saying that ESP may not be demonstrable, even in principle, but might still exist.

If it cannot be shown to be true even in theory because of lack of relevant information and the ability to gather relevant information

For clarity's sake: ...to gather relevant information, even in principle.

no, that is very much not what false means.

Yes, it is.

Something that is not true is false.

You made two sets of contradictory assertions

No, I didn't.
 
...all you have to do is provide one piece of evidence (or a mountain of evidence...I don't care what it is) that conclusively establishes that even a single event is fraudulent (that what someone says they experienced is not what they experienced).

I know for a fact that you cannot even begin to do this and I know, and can very effectively argue, why that is the case. As for the other couple of hundred million, I'll be back later.

This is not a good-faith demonstration of your attempts to meet the burden of proof.

Furthermore, this is yet another attempt at dishonestly shifting that burden of proof.

You, sir, are no scientist, and do not understand the requirements for scientific investigation. I have no interest in furthere discussion with you until you at least make a good-faith effort at rational discourse.

-------------------------------------------------------------

That said, I got to thinking last night: what would such an investigation look like? I think it may be useful to have an outline in this thread, so that others can see that we're not just dismissing this stuff arbitrarily.

It's said that there are hundreds of millions of anecdotal reports. Fine, okay, we can take that as a given. Now the task is to determine which of these reports can actually inform us about ESP phenomena.

We can immediately eliminate anything said by a known fraud. Sylvia Brown, John Edwards, and thier ilk have no credibility and are known to make false statements; therefore, anything said by them can be dismissed without further consideration, on the premise that it is almost certainly fraudulent. Anything stemming from their statements can as well--so, for example, if an audience member says "Sylvia spoke to my dead mother!", or someone bases their claims on one of Edwards' books, those claims can be dismissed from further consideration as well.

Anyone with a history or family history of serious mental illness, particularly serious hallucinations, can be dismissed from consideration. Unlike the first case I'm not saying that they're lying, or even necessarily wrong--it's just that there are so many confounding factors that it would be impossible to disentangle any real statement from any fake one. The family history thing I included because undiagnosed mental illness is rampant--there is a stigma attached to even seeing a psychiatrist, even today, so if someone's extended family (grandparents and their offspring) has been diagnosed with a mental illness that could give a false positive the reports of the non-diagnosed perosn are questionable. Since we're trying to demonstrate something that violates everything known about how the world works, we want the best-quality data we can get.

For the same reasons outlined above, anyone with a history of chemical abuse, or who has taken certain drugs, is out. I read today, for example, that certain antimilarial drugs can cause halucinations. Such confounding factors may make it impossible to differentiate real ESP events from side effects of drugs.

The same applies for sleep deprivation. Any claims made about ESP in the first year after the birth of a child should be discarded, due to the fact that parents for the first year (roughly; it varies from child to child) are fairly massively sleep-deprived.

There are a few I've certainly left out--the general principle is, if there is doubt about their state of conciousness, we cannot take the report at face value, and for the purposes of demonstrating ESP, to give ourselves the best chance possible, we should discard them.

Of those that are left (a very small number at this point) any that do not contain sufficient detail to examine in depth should be discarded. For example, if someone says "I saw my dead mother the night she died", and that's it, there's nothing we can investigate. It's not that we're saying the report is wrong, necessarily, it's just that we cannot prove it either way, and therefore cannot consider it at this stage.

The holy grail of this research would be finding someone who has meticulously documented their instances of ESP, in a journal or diary or something. A dream journal would be a fantastic resource for someone claiming to have had prophetic dreams.

But here we run into a final hurdle: how to count hits and misses. This is no easy task. For example, I once had a dream that I was a T. rex in Florida and watched a rocket shoot off into space. At the time (middle school, I think) I had not even considered living in the South, and while I loved the Saturn V rockets I had no interest in space exploration. Nor did I know of Tyrannosaurids in the South. In the past two years I've worked extensively on NASA bases in the South, I have worked in Florida, and I discovered that there were Tyrannosaurids discovered in Alabama. So, given a wide enough definition of a "hit", I can count no less than three hits for that one dream--which was obviously not a prophetic dream in any sense, just a really fun dream I fondly remember. My point is, we need a tight enough definition of "hit" to prevent stuff like that from seeping in. This is extremely tricky. Personally, I'd say we need to make it as constrained as possible, not to remove as many reports as possible but rather to ensure that any that do survive this analysis are accepted by even those who doubt the conclusion. Obviously the definition of a "hit" will depend on the nature of the ESP phenomenon in question; I'll leave that to those more knowledgeable than I. But it MUST be written down, it MUST be consistent throughout the study, and it MUST be used by EVERYONE involved.

Does this seam like a lot? Sure. Do I care? Not in the least. This is how a scientist would approach this question, and nothing less is acceptable.

There is one thing I do want to note that differentiates science from pseudoscience. I have been assuming throughout this example that the researcher in question accepts ESP as real. Therefore, I biased the study against that conclusion. This is standard scientific practice--we know that everyone has their pet hypotheses (it's inevitable), and it's therefore impossible to analyze all working hypotheses on equal terms. To compensate for this, scientists routinely are MORE harsh with their pet hypotheses than with the alternatives. Darwin's works are a fantastic case study in exactly that--he gave his opponents every chance to disprove him. The reason is simple: If we set our pet hypotheses up for failure and they still survive, even our opponents will admit that there's something to our pet hypotheses.

In contrast, annnnoid and his ilk have set vastly higher standards for disproof of their pet hypotheses than for proof of them. Someone saying "I once had a dream that came true" counts as proof--but to disprove it, we are expected to find ONE explanation that disproves ALL of them IN DETAIL. This is the exact opposite of scientific SOPs, and is tailor made to insulate the pet hypothesis from criticism.

When a scientist wants something to be true they do everything they can to prove it false. When a pseudoscientist wants something to be true, they do everything they can to prevent it from being proven false. It's not universally true, but it's a very common pattern to watch out for.

Anyway, that is what we should expect from serious research into anecdotal claims of ESP. That's pretty much the only way anecdotes can be turned into useful data. Until someone does this--and shows their work, in detail--there is literally nothing to talk about. All we have is a bunch of random claims and the petulant demand that we accept them at face value, which is hardly a scientific, or even rational, approach to anything, much less something of this level of importance (if true). What I've outlined above is what taking this idea seriously would look like, in broad strokes. If the ESP advocates can't even do that, why should WE take it seriously?
 
In contrast, annnnoid and his ilk have set vastly higher standards for disproof of their pet hypotheses than for proof of them. Someone saying "I once had a dream that came true" counts as proof--but to disprove it, we are expected to find ONE explanation that disproves ALL of them IN DETAIL. This is the exact opposite of scientific SOPs, and is tailor made to insulate the pet hypothesis from criticism.

This has been his modus operandi since the beginning of the thread, yes. He has a blatant double standard about any of his pet theories; any evidence against them is not conclusive enough, no matter how rigorous, while anything that he thinks provides any support at all is instantly admitted.

This is why he's bending over backwards trying to equivocate between anecdotes and actual evidence, but refuses to consider the fact that no studies have turned up anything in his favor as relevant.
 
This has been his modus operandi since the beginning of the thread, yes.

What strikes me is that it's the same for all of them. Folks trying to disprove Relativity do the same thing--their guestimates are 100% accurate, but the careful calculations backed by meticulous observations from astronomers and physicists aren't good enough. Or, anti-vaxers accept the mere claim that vaccines caused someone's autism, while rigorous studies conducted over generations by hundreds of medical staff on multiple continents aren't rigorous enough. Or homeopathy, or crystal healing, or....the list goes on. Richard Owen sadly fell into this trap himself, and got rather spectacularly slapped down for it, ruining his career and reputation.

Someone following this pattern isn't necessarily a pseudoscientist--scientists are human, after all, and sometimes make the mistake of treating their pet hypotheses too gently--but if someone is following this pattern it's a red flag the size of Texas!
 
...all you have to do is provide one piece of evidence (or a mountain of evidence...I don't care what it is) that conclusively establishes that even a single event is fraudulent (that what someone says they experienced is not what they experienced).
I know for a fact that you cannot even begin to do this and I know, and can very effectively argue, why that is the case. As for the other couple of hundred million, I'll be back later.

You are aware that no one has claimed all such anecdotes are "fraudulent"? There are many ways people can be mistaken or come to the wrong conclusion without there being any fraud committed.

But again you are mixing up a description with a conclusion about an event, let me give you an example:

An anecdote that doesn't include a conclusion (kept and made very simple for clarity):

I was sat at my desk and suddenly a piece of paper floated up off the desk

There is no conclusion shoehorned into that anecdote, it's simply a description.

What you seem to be doing is the following:

I was sat at my desk and suddenly by telekinesis a piece of paper floated up off the desk.

Can you see how that anecdote is very different in type to the first example because the first makes no claim about the how.

And to the highlighted request here is just one example and remember you only asked for a single example: http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=2896613#post2896613
 
Last edited:
...the point was, Nonpareil insisted that ALL memories are flawed. Are you agreeing with Nonpareil?

All memories are POTENTIALLY flawed. Thus, the burden is on the claimant to demonstrate that the events they remember actually occurred. A person may forget critical details, or may add critical details (this has been so well documented in courtrooms and psychological literature that denying it is on the same level as denying gravity). Or they may just remember something that's entirely false--people "remember" committing crimes they demonstrably didn't commit under police interogation very frequently. It's a major problem with criminal investigations.

If something CAN BE flawed, it is the claimant's responsibility to show that it's NOT flawed IN THIS CASE--meaning the burden of documentation is on them, and each case must be evaluated individually. That's why scientists document everything--if we don't, and rely on memory, it doesn't count.

Add a poor undestanding of cognative biases, a healthy dose of remembering apparent hits and ignoring misses, and other well-known and widely-documented mental issues we all have, and most ESP phenomana evaporate like vampires at dawn. If there are any remaining it is YOUR obligation to demonstrate them.

I don't think you can. In fact, I'm sure of it. If you could, you would have, instead of demanding we disprove anecdotes.
 

Back
Top Bottom