It is true that later in #21 you recognized that you "got confused" when writing this. Nevertheless, you did not address your mistakes. Why?
Because I am still confused as to your claims. There are three mutually exclusive claims that you made in this thread. At one point, you claimed to find a logical inconsistency in relativity. At another point, you claimed to show that relativity was inconsistent with experimental results. At another point, you claimed to show that relativity is not necessary to explain experimental results.
Your claims is unclear. I think that I may have been wrong about one of the claims that I made. However, that would probably mean that you are wrong in one of the three claims that you made.
I admit that I don't understand your argument as a whole. Therefore, I will just pick at specific hypotheses that you present in your argument, regardless of what your conclusions are.
My above formulas are simply the formulas of the relativistic Doppler effect:
Motion along the line of sight.
You are right. This is the formula for a relativistic longitudinal Doppler effect. I may have have been wrong when I claimed this was wrong. You got me once. Fine.
You used the correct formula for relativistic longitudinal Doppler shift. This formula would apply as long as neither source or observer are accelerating due to external forces. If the observer is in an inertial frame, if the source is moving at a constant velocity relative to that observer, and if there is a vacuum between source and observer, then this formula is correct.
Note that both acceleration and velocity are vectors. So the source can maintain a constant speed but have a nonzero acceleration due to a change in the velocities direction. So this Doppler formula does not have to be true for a rotating frame of reference. It certainly won't hold for the accelerating twin during acceleration.
In order to confirm or refute the Lorentz transformation, we must check the opposite case: moving observer and stationary sources. According to common sense:
For the moving observer, the time of the sources runs faster than proper (own) time.
I can't find this 'common sense' person. I looked for polls and surveys that asked peoples opinion on this topic. I could not find any polls or surveys.
I do know Newtonian physics as presented in Principia. I have found some people that claim 'Newton's physics are 'common sense'. , I know a bit about Galilean transforms. According to these preEinstein views of the universe, the clocks in a source should run at the same speed as ones own proper time. Newton hypothesized an absolute time that runs the same for all observers throughout the universe.
Newton did not assume that there was a local interaction that changed the rate of the clocks. The Galilean transformation does not effect the time component. So both Newton and Galileo disagree with your common sense.
However, I am not sure whether this is really the issue. So lets continue.
According to the Lorentz transformation:
For the moving observer, the time of the sources runs slower than proper time, as time dilation is mutual (leading to the so called twin paradox).
Back to relativity. Neither Einsteinian nor Lorentzian relativity says anything that you claim.
The Lorentz transformation does not say all moving clocks have to move slower than the stationary clocks. In fact, a clock that is accelerating could be running faster than a stationary clock that isn't accelerating.
The Lorentz transformation of time has a term 'vx/c^2' term in addition to the gamma factor. This term becomes important when a force causes acceleration. In an inertial frame, 'v' can only be changed due to a real force. So the change has an asymmetry due to force.
The 'rate of time' has an explicit dependence both on dynamical acceleration and distance because of this 'vx/c^2' term.
Therefore, an accelerating observer will have a different 'rate of time than an inertial observer, even if the two are moving with the same velocity as long as the two are in different positions.
I predict that you will either ignore or blithely dismiss the 'vx/c^2' term in the Lorentz transformation no matter how many times someone else brings it up.
Yeah, yeah. You too.