Sorry, I didn't mean to be personally discourteous; just to disagree with the ideas you were expressing. But I have failed to get my argument across, because this is exactly what I was trying to refute.Craig,
Can I request some equal courtesy in discourse?
No. I am aware that's what you are saying, and it's entirely wrong. Completely. It is a fallacy, and a known and common fallacy. The fact that we can't decide between two possible scenarios, because we have an equal amount of information (i.e. none) about whether either of them has occurred in the past, or will in the event definitely occur in the future, doesn't make them equiprobable.I stated that several possibilities are AS LIKELY as each other because we have no idea WHERE these texts were created, by whom, and for what purpose.
You are saying: we don't know whether a was the case or b was the case, so we have an equal amount of knowledge of both (i.e. none at all); therefore anything I might say is equally known (that is, not known at all), therefore it is equally probable. No. Therefore I completely reject this, that you go on to write.
No. And again if they are "just as" possible as what I wrote, they must be "just as" possible as one another, or "just as" possible as any other proposal you might wish to advance. No. You're saying the same fallacious thing in a myriad different ways, and it is still wrong.For instance, though you just rudely snipped the section out and - without any shown reason - declared them "fanciful speculation", each of those propositions stands JUST AS possible as what you wrote.