Jabba
Philosopher
- Joined
- Feb 23, 2012
- Messages
- 5,613
- You're saying that, according to the scientific model, there is a difference in experiencers (even though they are "identical," but that it's due simply to the fact of different brains. Does that mean that the difference between experiencers is not due to biochemical differences?Yes, that's what I mean too. Just as there would be two identical brains, there would be two identical "experiencers". Obviously you could not have two brains producing one experiencer in the scientific model, just as you cannot have one brain in two skulls.
I still don't understand the point of this discussion.
- Hopefully, I'll be able convey the relevance of my questions as we proceed.