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Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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Right, well in that case, if you think that your statement and mine are the same, then it does appear that you have indeed been studying at the Bulgarian Institute of misunderstood English.

Here is your statement -

“Have you maintained in this forum that a document is only valid when we know the author and its date -similar to legal criteria? Yes or not? Of course, yes!”


And here are the two statements that you quoted from me, and which you are claiming are the same as your statement above -

Originally Posted by IanS
The plain and very simple fact is - the bible is inherently unreliable in the first place and should never be trusted in any measure at all, for all the same reasons that anonymous hearsay evidence like that is never allowed in any democratic court (because it’s far below the standard required even to be read to a jury for any consideration at all).

Originally Posted by IanS
The standard of evidence required in a law court (jury trial) is, however, only that what is offered as “evidence”, should not be merely unsupported hearsay, and certainly cannot be any anonymous claim of hearsay from unknown anonymous sources who cannot be traced. And that most definitely IS the same standard that we MUST adopt as the very minimum in any historical case, including the case of Jesus.



According to your statement, I had said that “a document”, ie “any” document, “is only valid when we know the author and its date”.

Neither of my two statements claim that any “document is only valid when we know the author and its date “. My statements do not talk about what is, or is not, “valid" (whatever that term might mean in any such context … “valid" for what purpose?). And they do not say we must know the actual date and the actual author in order for any such document to have a “valid” use for some purpose.

What my statements say is only that, as in a court of law where testimony is offered before a jury as “evidence” of a particular claim, that the testimony must be reliable as to it’s source and veracity. It cannot be something like anonymous hearsay claims made by unknown unavailable witnesses, because that sort of claim is inherently unreliable in the extreme. And in the case of the gospels, that extremely unreliable anonymous hearsay writing is further rendered seriously lacking in credibility by their constant untrue claims of Jesus being witnessed performing physically impossible acts. That is just not credible as testimony, and as a source that writing is unreliable in the extreme.

It is not a matter of any part of such testimony being “valid”, whatever that adjective means in this context. It’s simply a question of whether the gospel testimony is reliable and credible as evidence of a human Jesus offered by a reliable witness making credible claims of something which the writer could personally ever know.

As I have repeatedly said throughout this thread - Paul’s letters fall into a slightly different category to the gospels. Because they are at least claimed to have been written by a known person (“Paul”) whose reliability and veracity can be investigated, at least in principle. Though when we do try to enquire after Paul’s credibility, and/or the credibility of much later copies produced under his name, it turns out that even Paul’s letters, whilst not rendered so obviously and inherently unreliable and non-credible by constant miracle claims, are nevertheless still far too unreliable and lacking credibility, for all the numerous reasons explained here at least 50 times before in this thread.

There might be a “valid” reason for trying to determine something from both Paul’s letters and from the gospels, e.g. in terms of what people in that region believed as a matter of messianic faith in the 1st-2nd century. It may be valid in telling us something about that. And it might even be a “valid” pursuit to attempt to ascertain some historical details about the time and place in which the stories were written; e.g. were they actually written in Egypt? Who were the ruling officials at that time? Etc.

But what the gospels in particular are not good enough for, is to be presented as if they were a reliable source of any of their authors knowing anything about a living human Jesus. And what Paul’s letters are similarly not good enough for, is to be presented as a reliable account of Paul knowing a living Jesus either ... and if comes to that, also not as a reliable account of Paul ever knowing anyone else who actually knew a living Jesus.

1. Valid for the problem of Jesus’ existence. Valid in the sense that is valid a legal testimony, according to your legal rule applied to Ancient History.

2. “Slightly” different? How much “slightly”? If your criterion of reliability is the legal one, a mere name on a document doesn’t improve its juridical validity. It will be equal to zero until we’ll be able to verify the identity of the signer. This is not the case of "Paul". That is why that we cannot know what the original writing actually said.


3. If you discard the Gospels because of their incredible miracles, you have to reject also Paul's letters because of their incredible accounts of visions. Neither one nor the other will be valid testimonies in a court.

4. Therefore, we cannot discard that a Jew of the middle of the First Century had written those letters to explain his conversion to Christianity. But it is equally possible that the name of “Paul” is only a general title for a number of letter-writers in the Second Century, who invented this character in order to give an air of authority to a religious system that went beyond the original Christianity.
This arose the character of the once pious Jew Paul, who rages against the Christians, and is then converted by a vision, and, as a zealot against the law, founds a purely spiritual Christianity, making it easier by his own example for the Jews to abandon the law.


5. May be we can ascribe the letters to a religious system or a particular place between the First and the Second Centuries, but it would not be possible to ascribe so peculiar and novel a system as Paulinism to an immediate disciple of “the Lord” named “Paul”, to whose supposed historical personality the other followers of the new religion appealed.

6. For example. “Paul” says that he has been speaking with James, “the Lord’s brother”. Let us suppose that we conclude that “Paul” wants to say blood brother. You could say that this signifies nothing, since the sentence could have been written by an alexandrine Gnostic in the second Century, who obviously is inventing this alleged “James”.

That is why, this discussion is irrelevant and a loss of time if we cannot set a relevant system of dating. And here Plato’s letters enter.

NOTA BENE: #4 and #5 are quoted from A. Drew. I have not put the text between quotation marks for I have changed some words to better adapt it to our debate.
 
On the contrary, I am dead serious about Eisenman. You could try reading my thread on the subject:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=267096

I think he makes a very good case. His credentials are impeccable and he did a lot to open up the field of Dead Sea Scrolls Scholarship. He can be a bit belligerent and dismissive of other Bible Scholars, but I'm not sure that he is totally unjustified in that, given the way he has been vilified by some.

I haven't read any of Ehrman's books, but he does seem a bit too credulous when it comes to the gospel stories, from what I have seen in various quotes and videos etc.

I can't take Price seriously as an advocate for a Mythical Jesus, given that in the late nineties he changed his opinion on that and he acknowledged that the HJ probably existed.

Doherty and Carrier are clutching at straws with their "celestial Jesus" idea, which is a load of bollocks IMO.

Well, Brainache, I don’t mind saying that I was hugely impressed by your summation.

Less so with Eisenman’s imaginative claims though, and was rather delightfully surprised at his faith in Acts. I enjoyed it though – thanks.
 
I'm curious at which date these gospels actually emerged - as far as I was aware sure dates have not yet been established.

A related question: what dates do you think Doherty or Carrier suggest for these texts?

Let’s get John the Baptist out of the way first, proudfootz.

As far as I know, and I gladly stand corrected, Justin Martyr is the first to mention John. Marcion knows nothing of John, suggesting that the latter went directly from Josephus (assuming this particular passage is authentic) to Justin, and thence to Luke. Marcion published his work a few years after arriving in Rome, or around 145. Justin, discrediting him, knows Marcion, and probably wrote around the middle of the second century.

In that John the Baptist plays a key role in the canonical gospels and the Jesus saga, this little snippet alone would seem to indicate that the Gospels were composed at least no earlier than say 150, as solidly affirmed by the fact that Justin not only fails to mention the Gospels by name, but appears to have simply no knowledge of them.

As well, in all the Christian writings up to 180, there doesn’t exist a single authentic mention of any of the canonical gospels, except for one by Theophilus in the early 170’s in respect of the Gospel of John. Neither is there any reliance whatsoever prior to that date on the contents found in the Gospels, over and above what already existed in preceding manuscripts. I think the first mention of Acts of the Apostles is by Irenaeus about 180.

I’m not going to present the relevant details here, but the writings of Irenaeus, Tertullian, and Clement of Alexandria, in the latter part of the second century, further clearly demonstrate that there existed a mutual accord between these three fathers, one aimed at the introduction and promotion of the canonical gospels as the final inspired word, and which happened to coincide with extending the authority of the Church of Rome beyond the borders of Italy itself.

Finally, Jerome in his Commentary on Matthew states:

“The Evangelist Luke declares that there were many who wrote gospels, which being published by various authors, gave birth to several heresies; such as that according to the Egyptians, and Thomas, and Matthias, and Bartholomew, that of the Twelve Apostles, and Basilides, and Apelles, and others, which it would be tedious to enumerate; in relation to these it will be enough at present to say, that there have been certain men, who endeavored, without the spirit and grace of God, rather to set forth some sort of account, than to publish a true history.”

As far as I’m aware, no scholar claims that Luke referred to any of the canonical gospels, which furthermore discredits the notion of Mark’s gospel being the first.

Origen, as well as others, add additional writings to those above, but suffice to say that the Gospel of Apelles was definitely written no later than the year 170.

(By the way, some scholar have observed that part of Apelles work focussed on the epistles of Paul, ‘which thereafter the whole church had to take more seriously, as the anti-Marcionite prologues to the canonical gospels make clear’, especially with reference to Luke whose prologue survives in both Greek and Latin.)

For sake of completeness, I’d also once more note that Hegesippus knew nothing of the canonical gospels, even though he’s said to have written five books on church history a few years after 180, traveling extensively to that end.

Given all of the foregoing, it is beyond me how any scholar can possibly maintain that the Gospels were in fact first-century productions!

You’d also like to know the dates applied by Doherty and Carrier.

Let’s first return, in part only, to Godfrey entry on Ehrman’s conclusions: -

“From Bart Ehrman’s Jesus, Interrupted, pp. 144-145:

It also appears that the Gospel writers know about certain later historical events, such as the destruction of Jerusalem in the year 70 ce . . . That implies that these Gospels were probably written after 70.

There are reasons for thinking Mark was written first, so maybe he wrote around the time of the war with Rome, 70 ce.

If Matthew and Luke both used Mark as a source, they must have been composed after Mark’s Gospel circulated for a time outside its own originating community — say, ten or fifteen years later, in 80 to 85 ce.

These are rough guesses, but most scholars agree on them.”

The dating of Mark stems largely from Jesus prophesying the 70 AD destruction of the Temple, with some Christian writers, and most scholars, latching on to this as evidence of its approximate date - with the other three gospels in turn dated respective to Mark. The problem here being, that this renowned event could have been inserted into the tale at any subsequent time whatsoever, even right up to 170 or 180 AD!

As Godfrey notes, we’re told that most scholars agree on a range of dates, ‘for a variety of reasons’, yet these seems to be more motivated by ideology than facts.

The following is mostly taken from Carrier’s review of Doherty’s Jesus Puzzle.

Carrier: “For example, there is no need at all for him to argue that Acts was written decades after Luke (a very disputable claim), since this has nothing to do with his thesis. He can work just as comfortably with Luke-Acts being a single unit composed at the end of the 1st or beginning of the 2nd century.”

Acts seems only to have been concocted a decade or so after Luke, and I doubt that Luke and Acts were composed by the same author, but the notion that they were composed ‘at the end of the 1st or beginning of the 2nd century’, for the reasons given earlier, strikes me as plain fanciful!

Carrier: “A special remark is needed for the most unfortunate example of hyperbole: Doherty's ad hominem, ‘no serious scholar dates either [Matthew or Luke] before the year 80’ (p. 194). Such a sentence has no business in anything a serious scholar writes. Several scholars whom I would indeed regard as serious, and competent, do in fact date these texts earlier (even if not greatly so), and Doherty seems to be maligning them here without the dignity of a trial. The fact is, there is no evidence these texts weren't written earlier, by at least a decade, maybe two--yes, it is unlikely, but not impossible, and arguing this certainly does not deprive me of the right to be called a serious scholar.”

Modern scholarship on full display!

Doherty (in his reply): “Rather, I would regard Mark (dating it perhaps a little earlier than the end of the first century) chiefly as an allegorical and ‘lesson’-oriented piece of writing, heavily employing midrash on scripture, to embody certain outlooks and practices within a sect centered somewhere in the Galilean/Syrian region. To what extent the later evangelists building on Mark (up to around 130?) also intended their Gospels as allegory, or may have accepted elements of Mark’s fictional creation as historical, is difficult to say.”

Why not simply suck our thumb!

Carrier: “For example, he argues that ‘if none of the sayings and deeds of Jesus found in the Gospels are attributed to him in the epistles,’ etc., then ‘the Gospels cannot be accepted as providing any historical data...’ (p. 26). Different interests, different styles, and different sources dictate the content of both.

Doherty: “My argument was a common sense one. If a story claims to present historical data, and yet a plethora of other documents from the same period and on the same subject fails to provide us with any of the detail of that story, big and small, we are justified in regarding the data of that story as ‘unreliable’.”

It’s hardly a question of which of the two sets of writings are acceptable as providing any historical data, seeing that, by their very nature, as well as intention, the one is as unreliable as the other.

The only way one could speak of Paul’s writings and the Gospels comprising a ‘plethora of other documents from the same period’ is if they both hailed from the first century … Our first witness to Paul’s writings is Marcion near the middle of the second century, rendering all that came before in this respect speculation. They simply represent different and non-interacting streams, unrecognized by the orthodoxy till the latter part of the second century by way of Acts of the Apostles.

Ask a simple question, and what do you get …
 
I'm curious at which date these gospels actually emerged - as far as I was aware sure dates have not yet been established.

A related question: what dates do you think Doherty or Carrier suggest for these texts?
I did a review of Doherty's latest book "Jesus: Neither God Nor Man", spread over 4 webpages. I created a table with the dates that Doherty proposes for some early texts on the second page, here:
http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakuseidon/JNGNM_Review2.html#2.4

He has the Gospel of Mark at around 90s CE, with gMatthew and gLuke within the first two decades of 2nd C CE. Not sure about gJohn though.
 
Let’s get John the Baptist out of the way first, proudfootz.

As far as I know, and I gladly stand corrected, Justin Martyr is the first to mention John. Marcion knows nothing of John, suggesting that the latter went directly from Josephus (assuming this particular passage is authentic) to Justin, and thence to Luke. Marcion published his work a few years after arriving in Rome, or around 145. Justin, discrediting him, knows Marcion, and probably wrote around the middle of the second century.

In that John the Baptist plays a key role in the canonical gospels and the Jesus saga, this little snippet alone would seem to indicate that the Gospels were composed at least no earlier than say 150, as solidly affirmed by the fact that Justin not only fails to mention the Gospels by name, but appears to have simply no knowledge of them. [ . . . ]

Thanks for that summing up, DougW.
Wait.
Between Joseph and Justin Martyr we have no mention of John the Baptist?
I could find none, myself.
How interesting.
Is John the Baptist going to be another historical figure used to flesh out the Jesus story, after all?
 
I did a review of Doherty's latest book "Jesus: Neither God Nor Man", spread over 4 webpages. I created a table with the dates that Doherty proposes for some early texts on the second page, here:
http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakuseidon/JNGNM_Review2.html#2.4

He has the Gospel of Mark at around 90s CE, with gMatthew and gLuke within the first two decades of 2nd C CE. Not sure about gJohn though.

I find very interesting this table (thank you!), but a bit incomplete. Crossan and al. give a big importance to the Thomas' Gospel. They claim that it is contemporary to the first Gospels. What Doherty thinks about it?
I see he dates the Paul's death about the 60's decade, but the Pauline epistles?
 
I find very interesting this table (thank you!), but a bit incomplete. Crossan and al. give a big importance to the Thomas' Gospel. They claim that it is contemporary to the first Gospels. What Doherty thinks about it?
I took a quick look at his book, and he sees it as First Century, but with redactions going into the Second Century.

I see he dates the Paul's death about the 60's decade, but the Pauline epistles?
I couldn't find any dates after a quick scan. (It would take too long to dig the info out, and I'm no longer interested in spending time on his theories, I'm afraid.)
 
1. Valid for the problem of Jesus’ existence. Valid in the sense that is valid a legal testimony, according to your legal rule applied to Ancient History.

2. “Slightly” different? How much “slightly”? If your criterion of reliability is the legal one, a mere name on a document doesn’t improve its juridical validity. It will be equal to zero until we’ll be able to verify the identity of the signer. This is not the case of "Paul". That is why that we cannot know what the original writing actually said.


3. If you discard the Gospels because of their incredible miracles, you have to reject also Paul's letters because of their incredible accounts of visions. Neither one nor the other will be valid testimonies in a court.

4. Therefore, we cannot discard that a Jew of the middle of the First Century had written those letters to explain his conversion to Christianity. But it is equally possible that the name of “Paul” is only a general title for a number of letter-writers in the Second Century, who invented this character in order to give an air of authority to a religious system that went beyond the original Christianity.
This arose the character of the once pious Jew Paul, who rages against the Christians, and is then converted by a vision, and, as a zealot against the law, founds a purely spiritual Christianity, making it easier by his own example for the Jews to abandon the law.


5. May be we can ascribe the letters to a religious system or a particular place between the First and the Second Centuries, but it would not be possible to ascribe so peculiar and novel a system as Paulinism to an immediate disciple of “the Lord” named “Paul”, to whose supposed historical personality the other followers of the new religion appealed.

6. For example. “Paul” says that he has been speaking with James, “the Lord’s brother”. Let us suppose that we conclude that “Paul” wants to say blood brother. You could say that this signifies nothing, since the sentence could have been written by an alexandrine Gnostic in the second Century, who obviously is inventing this alleged “James”.

That is why, this discussion is irrelevant and a loss of time if we cannot set a relevant system of dating. And here Plato’s letters enter.

NOTA BENE: #4 and #5 are quoted from A. Drew. I have not put the text between quotation marks for I have changed some words to better adapt it to our debate.



I have not read any of your above post.

You have had the answers explained to you at least 40 or 50 times. And you have been trying to make the same untrue claims for at least 6 months if not a year. See the very full and complete explanations I have already given to you.
 
The only way one could speak of Paul’s writings and the Gospels comprising a ‘plethora of other documents from the same period’ is if they both hailed from the first century … Our first witness to Paul’s writings is Marcion near the middle of the second century, rendering all that came before in this respect speculation.
There is 1 Clement, which is generally thought to be written either just before or just after the start of the Second Century:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/1clement-roberts.html

Let us take the noble examples furnished in our own generation...Let us set before our eyes the illustrious apostles. Peter, through unrighteous envy, endured not one or two, but numerous labours... Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance, after being seven times thrown into captivity, compelled to flee, and stoned...

The apostles have preached the Gospel to us from the Lord Jesus Christ; Jesus Christ [has done so] from God. Christ therefore was sent forth by God, and the apostles by Christ...

Take up the epistle of the blessed Apostle Paul. What did he write to you at the time when the Gospel first began to be preached? Truly, under the inspiration of the Spirit, he wrote to you concerning himself, and Cephas, and Apollos, because even then parties had been formed among you.​
Clement was writing to the Corinthians, so it suggests awareness fairly early of at least one letter Paul wrote.
 
There is 1 Clement, which is generally thought to be written either just before or just after the start of the Second Century [ . . . ]

Dunno about that dating being so generally thought.

Here's a summary of the Dutch Radicals' take on Clement
http://www.radikalkritik.de/clem_engl.htm
Moreover, 1 Clement was dated at about the year 125 CE by the leading Tübingen scholars (with the exception of HILGENFELD).
Summarizing LOMAN’s doubts about the genuineness of 1 Clement, which he expressed with reference to VOLKMAR, and adding some more arguments that were put forward later by VAN MANEN and VAN DEN BERGH VAN EYSINGA[vi] , we get the following rather impressive list:



1° Its size alone already contradicts the supposition of a real letter: „Rather it is a book, in form of a Pauline epistle...“[vii].

2° The fact, that the author does not tackle the actual reason for the letter before chapter 44, is unrealistic and shows the letter form to be nothing but clothing for a pious tract on the subject „Peace and Unity in Communities”. (The author himself names it „an appeal for Peace and Harmony” 63,2, or a „script” 62,2; and see Eusebius Hist. Ecc. III 38,5 „an admonition” and Hist. Eccl. II 25,8 where Dionysus of Corinth tells us the letter was designated to be read out to the Community).[viii]

3° The depicted conflict is bare of any inner probability. How could the ancient, firmly settled community oppose its Presbyters just because of a few ringleaders? Besides, the details of the situation remain quite obscure. See VAN MANEN, „All that is here said about contentions at Corinth belongs to the literary clothing of the document. Paul's first epistle to the Corinthians may have suggested it (cp chap.47). Perhaps too, though this is very far from certain, it is connected with disputes that had recently arisen as to the continuance in office, dismissal, and election of persons for a government of the church. It was the author's main purpose to remove difficulties of this kind wherever they might have arisen. He spoke under the mask of the Church at Rome, as a high authority, with growing emphasis, and finally as if he were one with the Holy Spirit himself (63,2; cp Acts 15,22-29)“[ix].

4° The „attempt at mediation”, which the author starts (from Rome!), is unrealistic, and it reveals the fiction character of the whole thing. The motive of the contentious Corinthian community was well known to the author and it probably was the model for the exposition of his exhortative text. Yet he is not always very persistent in using this motive, since (2, 6) he designates contention and revolt as things that had always been an abomination to the Corinthians. Besides, this passage shows that „consequently he … had not in earnest considered Paul’s letter to be a letter”[x].

5° 1,1 , too, is part of fictitious letter-form: „The conventional excuse of every letter writer”[xi]. Thusly this sentence does not, as often presumed, indicate a particular (Nero, Domitianus) persecution of the Christians. Because of the then prevalent Roman laws persecutions used to come not unexpectedly[xii].

6° Peter’s and Paul’s peaceful side by side indicates later times.

7° So does 44, 1f.

8° So do the passages in the letter that show liturgical use, as in 20, 1-12; 38, 1-4 and the prayer at the end. „Who then expects in a letter, and especially in a letter supposedly written in the name of the Roman to the Corinthian Community, to read the words, ‘So let us, in harmony and as best we know, meet in the same place and with one voice emphatically praise the Lord, since we are blessed with his great and magnificent promises.’ Wouldn’t the Corinthians hardly have been able to visit a sanctuary together with the Romans? Here the author, sliding into homiletics, forgets that he is writing a letter, though generally he keeps pretending to be doing so quite well[xiii].

9° A later period is indicated as well by all text parts that presuppose an antagonism between priests and laymen (cf. 40, 5: other laws apply to laymen than those for religious office-holders; see 41,1) and in which Roman clericalism announces itself. Roman is the military imagery (21,4; 28,2) as well as the fraternal harmony of Pauline doctrine of justification on the one and justification by works of the law on the other hand (cf. 32,4 compared with 35,5). „Authenticity of the letters assumed, it will appear highly improbable that Rome’s pure Paulinism had been diluted to such a degree in so short a time, like this seems to be the case in our letter.”[xiv]

10° Indication of a later period also in 55, 4.5, where he Book of Judith is mentioned, which according to VOLKMAR was not written before the year 138.[xv] (Gustav VOLKMAR, Ueber Clemens von Rom und die nächste Folgezeit, mit besonderer Beziehung auf den Philipper- und Barnabas-Brief, so wie auf das Buch Judith. In: ThJb(T) 15,1856, S. 287-369. )

11° A bishop cannot be the author, since before Anicetus (156-166) the Church in Rome did not have uniform leadership (s. Herm.). „The disciple of Peter (and Paul) finds no support either in our present epistle or in Phil 4,3. He disappears into the diverging version of the tradition“[xvi]. The other possibility, „still firmly maintained by such scholars as HARNACK and LIGHTFOOT, that the writing may have been the work of a certain Clement concerning whom nothing is known except what can be gathered from 'his' epistle, has no real value; and to connect it with the further supposition that this Clement was an influential member of the governing body of the Roman church — the martyr-bishop of legend — is not to be recommended. The epistle provides no support for it, but rather the reverse. The oldest tradition as to its origin knows nothing of any such view... From the work itself, all we can gather is that the author probably belonged to the Church of Rome. He was an educated man, well acquainted with the OT and the Pauline and other NT epistles; a friend of peace and order; a warm advocate of the occasionally, perhaps often, disputed rights of the presbyters and deacons once chosen, who had adequately discharged the duties of their office“[xvii].

12° VAN DEN BERGH VAN EYSINGA pointed out that the letter (against VOLKMAR’s opinion) clearly shows traces of anti-gnosticism. In 20,11; 33,2; 59,2 the Creator God (Demiurg) is – against dualism – declared to be identical with the „Lord of the universe“, respectively in one passage with the Father of Jesus Christ (59,2). The passage about the Resurrection (24,1-28,4), too, seems to be induced by gnostic denying of the Resurrection[xviii]. Even if otherwise there are relatively few references to gnostic teachings, this is no indication of an argumentum e silentio for an early dating of the letter, since this topic was of no current interest for the author. He was primarily interested in the question of the relationship between the leaders in office and the lay folk.[xix]
http://www.radikalkritik.de/clem_engl.htm

I've bolded a rather curious point in the text concerning the Book of Judith.
"10° Indication of a later period also in 55, 4.5, where he Book of Judith is mentioned, which according to VOLKMAR was not written before the year 138.[xv] (Gustav VOLKMAR, Ueber Clemens von Rom und die nächste Folgezeit, mit besonderer Beziehung auf den Philipper- und Barnabas-Brief, so wie auf das Buch Judith. In: ThJb(T) 15,1856, S. 287-369. )"

I had no idea Judith was considered to be such a late addition to the OT.


And here's Detering on the subject


Regarding 1 Clement, Detering expounds seven arguments.

First, “Can a document consisting of some 32-35 papyrus pages be accepted without further ado as a writing that was sent from Rome to Corinth with the intention of actual correspondence? …With the passing of one or two months, the situation which the writer presupposes in his writing could be entirely different, and his writing hopelessly out of date.”

Second, “If the party conflict in Corinth and the replacement of the presbyters with younger members of the church was in fact the real incentive for the letter from the church in Rome to the church in Corinth, it is furthermore completely impossible to understand why the writer only comes to speak of this in chapter 44 (!) and in the first two-thirds of the writing exhausts the patience of the Corinthians with discussions of the resurrection, the omniscience and omnipresence of God, and such things, which although edifying, have no importance for the matter at hand.”

Third, “In addition, there is the consideration that the entire controversy addressed by the writer of 1 Clement remains strangely unclear and vague and that the information about it is very contradictory, as even supporters of its authenticity today must concede: ”He [Clement] emphasizes that the uproar can be traced to ”a few rash and self-willed persons” (1.1; in 47.6 it is only ”one or two persons”), but then accuses the entire congregation (46.9 = ”your uproar”). As motives he identifies jealousy; envy and contentiousness; lack of love, humility and discernment. But he does not identify the actual background of the Corinthian conflict (!), just as little as he identifies the actual motives for the —certainly uninvited —intervention by Rome in the inner affairs of the Corinthian church (!). Without doubt, these are closely related, but there is nothing else to learn about either.”

Fourth, “If one begins with the presumption that we have to do here with a real letter, all the peculiarities cited here should give one cause for thought! Finally, the conflict as such lacks any inner probability: how can the Corinthian church, founded so long ago, rise up against their presbyters on account of only a few ringleaders? The ”attempt at mediation” that the writer undertakes (from Rome!), in which he one-sidedly condemns the ”troublemakers” in Corinth, as if they acted from base motives, is also entirely unrealistic and shows the fictional character of the whole thing.”

Fifth, “The tensions and obscurities revealed here are due to the contradiction between the situation presupposed in the writing and the author’’s real intention. The real intention of the author, of course, is not the resolution of an actual conflict in a diplomatic way, but something quite different: his writing, that is directed not to one church, and also not to the church in Corinth, but to all the churches in the Catholic universe, is intended not to mediate, but to instruct and—here a typical Catholic tendency of the letter becomes visible— to warn against uprisings and disorder in the churches! The writings leads us into a time, most probably the middle of the second century, in which the distinction between priests and laity (40.5: there are much different rules for laity than for ecclesiastical officer-holders) already announces the Roman clericalism. Over against all inclinations to opposition, the authority of the church is enjoined in an impressive example…”

Sixth, “Once one has recognized the writer’’s real intention, it will no longer seem strange if there are other peculiarities as well that would look odd in a real letter. Who would expect, for example, in real letter, which moreover is written by the church in Rome to the church in Corinth, to find the exhortation (34.7), ”Let us therefore come together in the same place with harmony of conscience and earnestly call upon the Lord as from one mouth, that we may share in his great and glorious promises”? In view of the geographical distance between Rome and Corinth, one can only wonder how the writer imagined the common visit of a holy place…”

Seventh, “In other places, the author succeeds very well in imagining himself in the role of a letter writer: for example, in the introduction to the letter, where it reads: ‘”On account of the sudden and repeated misfortunes and calamities that have befallen us, we have been somewhat delayed in turning to the questions disputed among you, beloved, and especially the abominable and unholy sedition, so inappropriate for the elect of God.’” In these lines, many people have wanted to see a reference to an actual situation of persecution (under Nero or Domitian). As the Dutch theologian Van den Bergh van Eysinga already recognized, however, what we have here is only a conventional apology, which the author of 1 Clement readily employs to give his writing the appearance of an authentic letter. According to the operative Roman law, persecutions did not usually arrive overnight.”

http://peterkirby.com/dialogue-concerning-the-two-chief-systems.html

ETA
DougW-apparently that mention of John the Baptist in Josephus isn't without some doubt as to its originality. Here's a blog from Vridar
http://vridar.org/2013/08/24/so-joh...ore-argument-for-the-forgery-case/#more-44016
"The Baptist” as an epithet of John was distinctive among Christian sources. It appears as a name in first-century CE Greek only in the synoptic Gospels. The usual reply to this question is that “John the Baptist” was how he was known generally and to all from his own time. But if so, we have the problem that he is not known by that name in either the Acts of the Apostles nor in the Gospel of John.


Why did Josephus use this term, especially addressing Greek and Roman audiences, and leave it unexplained? These questions have case doubt on the authenticity of the passage among:

1893: Herman Graetz, Geschichte der Juden, p. 276, n. 3
1917, 1967: Abrahams, Studies in Pharisaism and the Gospels, p. 33

There's a great deal more in the article and comments.
 
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Marcion did not put out an "Evangelikon Gospel" which his detractors claimed was "Luke".

There was NO Gospel according to Luke c 140 CE.

The claims in "Against Heresies" attributed to Irenaeus are contradicted by Multiple Apologetic sources.

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-firstapology.html

In "First Apology" attributed to Justin Martyr, a contemporary of Marcion, it is claimed Marcion preached Another God and Another Son.

Marcion was teaching that the God of the Jews was NOT the Creator and the son of God was NOT the son of the God of the Jews.


http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050107.htm

In "Refutation of All Heresies" attributed to Hippolytus the teachings of Marcion are shown and it contains NOTHING at all like the Gospel according to Luke.

Marcion preached Dualism.

Dualism is NOT in gLuke.

http://www.tertullian.org/fathers/ephraim2_4_marcion3.htm

In "Against Marcion" attributed to Ephraem the Syrian, it is claimed that the Marcionites did NOT accept the God of the Jews as the Creator and did NOT accept Jesus was sent by God.

Ephraem's "Against Marcion" in the existing three books do not contain a single verse from the gLuke or the Pauline Corpus in reference to Marcion and the Marcionites.

There were no written Gospels called according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John and No Pauline Epistles up to at least c 180 CE.

c 180 CE Celsus in True Discourse did NOT write anything about Paul and did NOT identify Gospels according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John.

Celsus CORROBORATES Justin Martyr when he claimed the Gospels was written by the disciples.

Marcion preached about the GOOD God--CHRESTUS--NOT Jesus the Christ of the God of the Jews.
 
There is 1 Clement, which is generally thought to be written either just before or just after the start of the Second Century:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/1clement-roberts.html

1st Clement is an anonymous letter which is a forgery or falsely attributed to Clement of Rome.

The anonymous letter was written no earlier than the start of the 5th century and was unknown to Augustine of Hippo, Optatus, Rufinus, Tertullian, the Latins, the authors of the Cronography of 354 and the Apostolic Constitutions.

1st Clement is an extremely late forgery or false attribution.

Plus, 1st Clement does NOT help at all to show that Pauline writings were composed before c 70 CE.

1st Clement never mentioned the time period of the date of composition of the supposed letter of Paul to the Corinthians.
 
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I have not read any of your above post.

You have had the answers explained to you at least 40 or 50 times. And you have been trying to make the same untrue claims for at least 6 months if not a year. See the very full and complete explanations I have already given to you.

You have explained it at least 40 or 50 times and I have explained you at least 40 or 50 times that you have a problem of coherence. It seems you cannot or don't want understand that you are maintaining a contradiction because of your erroneous criteria of dating but you refuse to enter in a debate on this subject. Let us leave it. Till the next time.
 
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apparently that mention of John the Baptist in Josephus isn't without some doubt as to its originality.

You obviously weren’t kidding where your reading is concerned, pakeha!

Good stuff and good links. A number of other scholars have also thrown doubt on the John the Baptist passages in Josephus.
 
It’s true that Marcion didn’t publish any “Evangelikon Gospel”, dejudge, which instead refers to his collection of ten Paul Epistles. Marcion’s gospel was called ‘The Gospel’ or, sometimes, ‘The Gospel of the Lord’.

Marcion may have preached as you say, but almost his entire gospel is also to be found in Luke, who apparently had access to additional and older manuscripts as well.

No one really knows exactly when Celsus wrote his work, including Origen.
 
There is 1 Clement, which is generally thought to be written either just before or just after the start of the Second Century:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.c...y simply have been part of the original work.
 
It’s true that Marcion didn’t publish any “Evangelikon Gospel”, dejudge, which instead refers to his collection of ten Paul Epistles. Marcion’s gospel was called ‘The Gospel’ or, sometimes, ‘The Gospel of the Lord’.

Marcion did NOT write or publish 10 letters of the Pauline Corpus. Multiple Apologetics admit Marcion did NOT accept the God of the Jews or Jesus.

Marcion preached about a God GREATER than the God of the NT and another Son of his Greater God.

DougW said:
Marcion may have preached as you say, but almost his entire gospel is also to be found in Luke, who apparently had access to additional and older manuscripts as well.

Again, Marcion used the writings of Empedocles. gLuke is completely CONTRARY to Marcion's teachings.

How in the world could Marcion's Gospel be found in gLuke when Marcion's Son of God was a PHANTOM [without birth and without flesh].

Justin's First Apology
And there is Marcion, a man of Pontus, who is even at this day alive, and teaching his disciples to believe in some other god greater than the Creator.

And he....... has caused many of every nation to speak blasphemies, [and to deny that God is the maker of this universe, and to assert that some other being, greater than He, has done greater works.

[u[]Marcion TAUGHT men to DENY Jesus and the God of the Jews.[/u]

DougW said:
No one really knows exactly when Celsus wrote his work, including Origen.

No one knows exactly when the Gospel of Peter was fabricated.
 
You have explained it at least 40 or 50 times and I have explained you at least 40 or 50 times that you have a problem of coherence. It seems you cannot or don't want understand that you are maintaining a contradiction because of your erroneous criteria of dating but you refuse to enter in a debate on this subject. Let us leave it. Till the next time.



We disagree about it. But I don't have any "criteria for dating" as you put it.

And in fact afaik we/you were not actually disagreeing about any assumed or estimated “dates”. What you appear to be disputing is whether or not we can consider the gospels in particular, to be in any sense a reliable record of what any original gospel writers actually knew or said about a living preacher named “Jesus”.

And where, what I previously said was that the indisputable fact about that, is that all we have as those gospels, are much later anonymously written Christian copies. Supposedly anonymous copies of gospels originally written by other anonymous people under the assumed names of Mark, Mathew Luke and John, but where even those original anonymous authors make clear that they themselves had never known Jesus, and where they were merely passing on legendary stories from yet more distantly anonymous informants who themselves had also never known Jesus, but who believed that Jesus had once had disciples who had known Jesus and witnessed him doing all sorts of things which 1800 years later have turned out be quite certainly impossible supernatural fiction.

The inescapable point is that writing like that cannot possibly be a reliable source of it’s non-credible stories of a messiah than none of it’s anonymous authors ever knew.

And it’s in that respect that the analogy to the inadmissibility of anonymous hearsay evidence in jury trials is directly comparable. Where, in most advanced western democracies the courts have long since agreed that such testimony is completely unfit to put before a jury, for the reason that it is inherently too unreliable and would be very likely to risk misleading any jury into entirely false beliefs and incorrect decisions.

It’s in that respect that I have said that, the gospels in particular, should be ruled out entirely as any kind of acceptably reliable accounts of what their chain of anonymous writers quite clearly never actually knew about a messiah who they believed in purely as a matter of religious legend.

That’s just in respect of the canonical gospels.

Paul’s letters and the non-biblical writing from sources such as Tacitus and Josephus, fall into a slightly different category from the gospels. But without yet again going into each of those cases, they too are all way below the lowest acceptable objective (and that really means “honest” or “genuine”) standard of reliability or credibility at all.

The fact that this may be the only source material available to biblical scholars is unfortunate for anyone wanting make a case for a HJ. But that cannot be an excuse for attempting to claim facts about any such legendary messiah upon such unreliable and completely incredible religious preaching as was written in the gospels.
 
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