David Mo
Philosopher
Right, well in that case, if you think that your statement and mine are the same, then it does appear that you have indeed been studying at the Bulgarian Institute of misunderstood English.
Here is your statement -
“Have you maintained in this forum that a document is only valid when we know the author and its date -similar to legal criteria? Yes or not? Of course, yes!”
And here are the two statements that you quoted from me, and which you are claiming are the same as your statement above -
Originally Posted by IanS
The plain and very simple fact is - the bible is inherently unreliable in the first place and should never be trusted in any measure at all, for all the same reasons that anonymous hearsay evidence like that is never allowed in any democratic court (because it’s far below the standard required even to be read to a jury for any consideration at all).
Originally Posted by IanS
The standard of evidence required in a law court (jury trial) is, however, only that what is offered as “evidence”, should not be merely unsupported hearsay, and certainly cannot be any anonymous claim of hearsay from unknown anonymous sources who cannot be traced. And that most definitely IS the same standard that we MUST adopt as the very minimum in any historical case, including the case of Jesus.
According to your statement, I had said that “a document”, ie “any” document, “is only valid when we know the author and its date”.
Neither of my two statements claim that any “document is only valid when we know the author and its date “. My statements do not talk about what is, or is not, “valid" (whatever that term might mean in any such context … “valid" for what purpose?). And they do not say we must know the actual date and the actual author in order for any such document to have a “valid” use for some purpose.
What my statements say is only that, as in a court of law where testimony is offered before a jury as “evidence” of a particular claim, that the testimony must be reliable as to it’s source and veracity. It cannot be something like anonymous hearsay claims made by unknown unavailable witnesses, because that sort of claim is inherently unreliable in the extreme. And in the case of the gospels, that extremely unreliable anonymous hearsay writing is further rendered seriously lacking in credibility by their constant untrue claims of Jesus being witnessed performing physically impossible acts. That is just not credible as testimony, and as a source that writing is unreliable in the extreme.
It is not a matter of any part of such testimony being “valid”, whatever that adjective means in this context. It’s simply a question of whether the gospel testimony is reliable and credible as evidence of a human Jesus offered by a reliable witness making credible claims of something which the writer could personally ever know.
As I have repeatedly said throughout this thread - Paul’s letters fall into a slightly different category to the gospels. Because they are at least claimed to have been written by a known person (“Paul”) whose reliability and veracity can be investigated, at least in principle. Though when we do try to enquire after Paul’s credibility, and/or the credibility of much later copies produced under his name, it turns out that even Paul’s letters, whilst not rendered so obviously and inherently unreliable and non-credible by constant miracle claims, are nevertheless still far too unreliable and lacking credibility, for all the numerous reasons explained here at least 50 times before in this thread.
There might be a “valid” reason for trying to determine something from both Paul’s letters and from the gospels, e.g. in terms of what people in that region believed as a matter of messianic faith in the 1st-2nd century. It may be valid in telling us something about that. And it might even be a “valid” pursuit to attempt to ascertain some historical details about the time and place in which the stories were written; e.g. were they actually written in Egypt? Who were the ruling officials at that time? Etc.
But what the gospels in particular are not good enough for, is to be presented as if they were a reliable source of any of their authors knowing anything about a living human Jesus. And what Paul’s letters are similarly not good enough for, is to be presented as a reliable account of Paul knowing a living Jesus either ... and if comes to that, also not as a reliable account of Paul ever knowing anyone else who actually knew a living Jesus.
1. Valid for the problem of Jesus’ existence. Valid in the sense that is valid a legal testimony, according to your legal rule applied to Ancient History.
2. “Slightly” different? How much “slightly”? If your criterion of reliability is the legal one, a mere name on a document doesn’t improve its juridical validity. It will be equal to zero until we’ll be able to verify the identity of the signer. This is not the case of "Paul". That is why that we cannot know what the original writing actually said.
3. If you discard the Gospels because of their incredible miracles, you have to reject also Paul's letters because of their incredible accounts of visions. Neither one nor the other will be valid testimonies in a court.
4. Therefore, we cannot discard that a Jew of the middle of the First Century had written those letters to explain his conversion to Christianity. But it is equally possible that the name of “Paul” is only a general title for a number of letter-writers in the Second Century, who invented this character in order to give an air of authority to a religious system that went beyond the original Christianity.
This arose the character of the once pious Jew Paul, who rages against the Christians, and is then converted by a vision, and, as a zealot against the law, founds a purely spiritual Christianity, making it easier by his own example for the Jews to abandon the law.
5. May be we can ascribe the letters to a religious system or a particular place between the First and the Second Centuries, but it would not be possible to ascribe so peculiar and novel a system as Paulinism to an immediate disciple of “the Lord” named “Paul”, to whose supposed historical personality the other followers of the new religion appealed.
6. For example. “Paul” says that he has been speaking with James, “the Lord’s brother”. Let us suppose that we conclude that “Paul” wants to say blood brother. You could say that this signifies nothing, since the sentence could have been written by an alexandrine Gnostic in the second Century, who obviously is inventing this alleged “James”.
That is why, this discussion is irrelevant and a loss of time if we cannot set a relevant system of dating. And here Plato’s letters enter.
NOTA BENE: #4 and #5 are quoted from A. Drew. I have not put the text between quotation marks for I have changed some words to better adapt it to our debate.