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Help With Grammar

This is just becoming intolerable.
:confused:

To correct what you said:

Nueva Gramática ... 4.6f; and mainly 8.3 Verbos derivados en -ear y sus variantes (I). Sus bases léxicas, 8.4 Verbos derivados en -ear y sus variantes (II). Usos traslaticios, and 8.5 Verbos derivados en -ear y sus variantes (III). Alternancias verbales. (not much, just 15 pages, as the work is a synthesis).

There's no *clique, nor *chate in Spanish. Just clic and chat. Or pinche/pique y charla. "*Mope" doesn't exist either, except as a bad translation or Spanglish in the Spanish versions of sites mainly written in English and intended to serve the Hispanic market in the States. ..
I never said these existed in surface structure. These forms exist only in an underlying representation.

If you prefer a class of verbs [+ear] with endings such as /+eo, eas, ea, eamos, ean/, in addition to the [+ar] class, fine. Go for it. The generative approach would prefer a deep structure rule that takes a noun "chat" ending in a consonant, inserts "e" for phonological purposes, and uses the common [+ar] infinitive suffix. >>>/chat+e+ar/ The nouns ending in a vowel remove that vowel, insert "e" and do the same: "mopa" /mop+e+ar/
If you say "el mop", then fine.

Generative phonology is a component of generative grammar that assigns the correct phonetic representations to utterances in such a way as to reflect a native speaker’s internalized grammar.
It takes a while to catch on. We're talking synchronic not historical derivations from a posited deep structure that hopefully represents what the native speaker "knows" or internalizes as linguistic knowledge.

The challenge is to describe what a speaker needs to internalize in order to speak his language. One option would be to memorize all the well formed utterances possible, but that is an infinite set. So, some other principle must be involved, namely rule based derivations. If rules are the answer, then the fewer the better. Occam's razor.

Generative phonology posits two levels of phonological representation:

  • An underlying representation is the most basic form of a word before any phonological rules have been applied to it. Underlying representations show what a native speaker knows about the abstract underlying phonology of the language.
  • A phonetic representation is the form of a word that is spoken and heard.
Lots of literature on the subject. I assumed that someone entering into such a discussion would have been aware of the basics.


  • Phonological rules
    Phonological rules map underlying representations onto phonological representations. They delete, insert, or change segments, or change the features of segments.
This might help. Example of derivations of words with an underlying morpheme prefix /+in/

http://www-01.sil.org/linguistics/glossaryoflinguisticterms/WhatIsAPhonologicalDerivation.htm

"impossible, irreverent, inept" all have different surface manifestations of the underlying /+in/ prefix, all predictable from phonological rules. Again, Occam's razor at work, and possibly, hopefully, a reflection of what a speaker needs to know.

The bottom line in generative linguistics is if your version of the rules of syntax, phonology or semantics needs less memory or fewer steps in a derivation than mine, then you win the game. It's not a matter of debate at all.
 
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:confused:

I never said these existed in surface structure. These forms exist only in an underlying representation.

If you prefer a class of verbs [+ear] with endings such as /+eo, eas, ea, eamos, ean/, in addition to the [+ar] class, fine. Go for it. The generative approach would prefer a deep structure rule that takes a noun "chat" ending in a consonant, inserts "e" for phonological purposes, and uses the common [+ar] infinitive suffix. >>>/chat+e+ar/ The nouns ending in a vowel remove that vowel, insert "e" and do the same: "mopa" /mop+e+ar/
If you say "el mop", then fine.

It takes a while to catch on. We're talking synchronic not historical derivations from a posited deep structure that hopefully represents what the native speaker knows.

The challenge is to describe what a speaker needs to internalize in order to speak his language. One option would be to memorize all the well formed utterances possible, but that is an infinite set. So, some other principle must be involved, namely rule based derivations. If rules are the answer, then the fewer the better. Occam's razor.

Lots of literature on the subject. I assumed that someone entering into such a discussion would have been aware of the basics.

This might help. Example of derivations of words with an underlying morpheme prefix /+in/

http://www-01.sil.org/linguistics/glossaryoflinguisticterms/WhatIsAPhonologicalDerivation.htm

"impossible, irreverent, inept" all have different surface manifestations of the underlying /+in/ prefix, all predictable from phonological rules. Again, Occam's razor at work, and possibly, hopefully, a reflection of what a speaker needs to know.

You're inventing Spanish as you play along with elements of linguistics that may or may not be right or applicable -and that I don't care about nor I've been replying to-. There's no "mopa" in Spanish, your supposed dictionary entry is an utter brainsore, as world class rubbish is too light -and we may discuss extensively why it is that-. You may find some isolated use like that, but if "mop" is a thing, the action performed with that thing will become "mopear" to every speaker independently she or he know what a "mop" is [By the way, in Uruguay mop translates into "haragán" -lazy man-]. That's what your idle speculation insist to ignore.

The only example in English of what you are doing regarding Spanish that comes to my mind would be to draw some obscure conclusion from the use in Dublin of the English expression "hard yakka" make by subjects born in India, when that Dublin is indeed in Ireland and not near Adelaide. If you can't precise in your mind the role of Spanglish, bilingualism, pidginization, language acquisition all against correct representations of the English and Spanish languages in all the needed variety, then stick to another language in your speculation or examples in Spanish quoted from an authority in the field.
 
You're inventing Spanish as you play along with elements of linguistics that may or may not be right or applicable...

¡Caballero! Un momento, si me permite.

Olowcow's explanations are not poor at all.

The grammar analysis used in the link you cite is mostly standard structural linguistics. Structural linguistics represented in its day what was thought to be the best approach to the problems of dealing with meaning: ignore it as best you can. It was and is still a very good and solid approach, and is amenable for use to be re-purposed in prescriptive grammar textbooks and style guides. It is very recognizable and accessible to native speakers who are not trained in linguistics.

Generative syntax is a evolutionary take on that. Still wary of the pitfalls of meaning, it attempts to map the voyage of ideas from mind into speech. This is done in the form of intermediate cognitive steps that are posited to be necessary to provide the final "surface" form that is produced.

It is based not only on speculative application of logic, but also on empirical data from things like brain damage and language problems, which may often illustrate the deletion or modification of an inner rule, and so demonstrate its validity. This is where generative syntax meets with psycholinguistics and neurology.

The rules it uses, such as the ones Olowkow was describing, are not normally recognizable, precisely because they are intermediate cognitive steps, not finished product. From a native speaker's perspective, when examined in that state, they seem to be quite ill-formed.

In English, we have the pronunciation in AE of the word "sure." Is it written with an "i" or a "y"? No. We know there was once one there, though, because we now can see the "s" has become an "sh" sound. This is an effect of the yod (i/y) following some consonants, such as in "nation."

Were Olowkow to have used that example, you might then have seen a yod listed in his transformations, and been able to claim, "ridiculous."

(Aside: This is fascinating, in that the history of the phonetics is now embedded in processing. Like language DNA, sorta.)
 
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¡Caballero! Un momento, si me permite.

Olowcow's explanations are not poor at all.

...

Sí, le permito ;)

I didn't say that they necessarily are. I did say they might be applicable or not. And I DID say that he was getting incorrect outputs, like a word "mopa". The curious thing is that many Mexican -I don't know which states, probably those with the large numbers of people the ICE placed its hand on- use mopear for "to clean the floor using a mop or mop-like tool", and there's a incipient yet pervasive tendency in Spain to use "mopa" as a cleaning device that may resemble a mop or not, that comes from commercial interests (the gender was probably deliberately chosen). But not the way around: If you say "mopeo con la mopa/el mop" people would think that you've just made up a noun in one side of la charca/el charco, while others would think you've just made up a verb in the opposite site. Or they'd say you made up the whole sentence in most of the Spanish speaking world, including lots of people in Spain and Mexico.

If you have a fancy pansy theory explaining why the next car to turn right in the corner is going to be blue, don't say blue and look to the opposite direction if it happens to be red, and least of all, don't say "how a car could be so wrong".

I enjoy Olowkow's posts, but it's sorta finding a good cook spitting in the pan now and then. I'm only removing what I consider to be wads.
 
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Sí, le permito ;)

I didn't say that they necessarily are. I did say they might be applicable or not. And I DID say that he was getting incorrect outputs, like a word "mopa". The curious thing is that many Mexican -I don't know which states, probably those with the large numbers of people the ICE placed its hand on- use mopear for "to clean the floor using a mop or mop-like tool", and there's a incipient yet pervasive tendency in Spain to use "mopa" as a cleaning device that may resemble a mop or not, that comes from commercial interests (the gender was probably deliberately chosen). But not the way around: If you say "mopeo con la mopa/el mop" people would think that you've just made up a noun in one side of la charca/el charco, while others would think you've just made up a verb in the opposite site. Or they'd say you made up the whole sentence in most of the Spanish speaking world, including lots of people in Spain and Mexico.

If you have a fancy pansy theory explaining why the next car to turn right in the corner is going to be blue, don't say blue and look to the opposite direction if it happens to be red, and least of all, don't say "how a car could be so wrong".

I enjoy Olowkow's posts, but it's sorta finding a good cook spitting in the pan now and then. I'm only removing what I consider to be wads.

Just separate method from examples, as he was attempting to illustrate that, iirc. The poor or bad Spanish that you lament does exist in some places, and since it is there, one can analyze it. Now, if he used a word that is not used anywhere, that can be a mistake from lack of familiarity. Linguistics can be complicated enough for a native in the language, let alone others.
 
¡Caballero! Un momento, si me permite.

Olowcow's explanations are not poor at all.

The grammar analysis used in the link you cite is mostly standard structural linguistics. Structural linguistics represented in its day what was thought to be the best approach to the problems of dealing with meaning: ignore it as best you can. It was and is still a very good and solid approach, and is amenable for use to be re-purposed in prescriptive grammar textbooks and style guides. It is very recognizable and accessible to native speakers who are not trained in linguistics.

Generative syntax is a evolutionary take on that. Still wary of the pitfalls of meaning, it attempts to map the voyage of ideas from mind into speech. This is done in the form of intermediate cognitive steps that are posited to be necessary to provide the final "surface" form that is produced.

It is based not only on speculative application of logic, but also on empirical data from things like brain damage and language problems, which may often illustrate the deletion or modification of an inner rule, and so demonstrate its validity. This is where generative syntax meets with psycholinguistics and neurology.

The rules it uses, such as the ones Olowkow was describing, are not normally recognizable, precisely because they are intermediate cognitive steps, not finished product. From a native speaker's perspective, when examined in that state, they seem to be quite ill-formed.

In English, we have the pronunciation in AE of the word "sure." Is it written with an "i" or a "y"? No. We know there was once one there, though, because we now can see the "s" has become an "sh" sound. This is an effect of the yod (i/y) following some consonants, such as in "nation."

Were Olowkow to have used that example, you might then have seen a yod listed in his transformations, and been able to claim, "ridiculous."

(Aside: This is fascinating, in that the history of the phonetics is now embedded in processing. Like language DNA, sorta.)

Thanks. Good explanation. I appreciate your taking the time to carefully read and understand what I wrote.

I'm very interested in any anecdotes of code switching that you have found interesting, as well as any pet hypotheses you might have about phonological processes. Last time I was involved, we were arguing about whether derivational history should be allowed in the rules. Very tempting, but then there's that annoying Occam's razor. And, as you aptly say, "...it attempts to map the voyage of ideas from mind into speech." Does the mind have the ability to look back in the derivation string to access this information in mapping it into speech?

Anyone who enjoys a good puzzle is bound to get hooked on studying phonology, once he appreciates the nature of the problem... which as we have seen can be a challenge.;)
 
Just separate method from examples, as he was attempting to illustrate that, iirc. The poor or bad Spanish that you lament does exist in some places, and since it is there, one can analyze it. Now, if he used a word that is not used anywhere, that can be a mistake from lack of familiarity. Linguistics can be complicated enough for a native in the language, let alone others.

Right. I have no idea if "mopa" exists in Argentina or Mexico, but it apparently exists in Spain.

▶ Limpieza.com La mopa plana de fregar - YouTube

I have not had much opportunity to speak Spanish in 40 years or so, but I try to keep up on French via Skype. I follow the video above fairly well though.

And it's obvious that no one would likely say "Mopeo con la mopa." That's just some silly straw man argument.

The point is, as you know, it doesn't matter what the example is, it is a phonological principle that is being explained. Phonological rules would work equally well with nonsense words, which is of course done when testing children for early language learning skills. If the rule doesn't generate the correct output, just change it.

Hlafordlaes, I'll try to remain in the discussion, but I'm not enjoying the noise. Hopefully, aleCcowaN might decide to knock off the unimpressive juvenile comments and read what we have written. He just might learn something.
 
One used to confuse advanced students of English in my days as an EFL teacher:

"I'd be surprised if that were grounds for divorce" (you think it isn't).

"I wouldn't be surprised if that were grounds for divorce" (you suspect it is).

"I wouldn't be surprised if that weren't grounds for divorce" (you suspect it is, though this could be negated by stressing the weren't ).

Though the latter two are probably just wry observations.

Ain't language grand :)
 
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So is this subjunctive? I thought not at first, but now I'm not so sure. It actually just makes it sound like a pirate is offering me wine.

wine.jpg
 
Right. I have no idea if "mopa" exists in Argentina or Mexico, but it apparently exists in Spain.

▶ Limpieza.com La mopa plana de fregar - YouTube

Specially the part "With High Tech system, everyone cleans up!" (sic, that is "IN ENGLISH!"):D:rolleyes:

I told you it was from commercial origin and mainly done by foreigners, but you had to ignore it to make you look right. So basically the link is just shinola, a term that I wouldn't find in an English dictionary with this or any other meaning, but a term that you're old enough to understand what I meant by it. "Mopo" or "mopa" are extremely less Spanish words than shinola is an English one.

And it's obvious that no one would likely say "Mopeo con la mopa." That's just some silly straw man argument.

The typical malafide argument done by many posters in randi.org: Creating a strawman by saying something was a strawman. Let's look at it in detail: I crystal clearly said:
If you say "mopeo con la mopa/el mop" people would think that you've just made up a noun in one side of la charca/el charco, while others would think you've just made up a verb in the opposite site. Or they'd say you made up the whole sentence in most of the Spanish speaking world, including lots of people in Spain and Mexico.
and it was clearly offered as an example of parts of it not being recognized by native speakers and not as a whole caricaturization, which it wouldn't be.

Your ignorance of Spanish language extends way beyond your own admission, as Spanish abhors redundancy but much more abhors lack of clarity. For years I've been saying to workers and students "paleo con la pala, no con la vizcachera". So, not only you concocted a strawman, but a ridiculous one.

The point is, as you know, it doesn't matter what the example is, it is a phonological principle that is being explained. Phonological rules would work equally well with nonsense words, which is of course done when testing children for early language learning skills. If the rule doesn't generate the correct output, just change it.

Hlafordlaes, I'll try to remain in the discussion, but I'm not enjoying the noise. Hopefully, aleCcowaN might decide to knock off the unimpressive juvenile comments and read what we have written. He just might learn something.

Don't worry, I was expecting to learn something many posts ago, but the increasing number of mistakes involving the parts I know made necessary to distrust everything else. Specially when errors pointed at you are replied with cockyness and more errors instead of amends, and now with a set-up of the fallacious kind and diminishing adjectivation. Everything following a pattern very common in forums.randi.org: somebody invents an identity or exaggerates knowledge or abilities -for instance, by placing him or herself in the middle of some experience he or she watched from its fringes or was told about- and when caught doing that, he or she starts a verbal dance that resembles two cats who hate each other bumping into each other by the park.

I have no problem following linguistics. But I admit the difference between those rules possible in English and those possible in Spanish. In fact, when I travelled Italy without knowing a bit of Italian but a bunch of Buenos Aires' slang words and a few phrases heard in the streets or read in my "Let's go", I had to use all what I know about it to communicate. Some 80% of the times it did the trick, and 20% of times I made mistakes, some of them very funny, and fortunately none of the embarrassing (I would, had I be given enough time ...).

A typical anecdote have me trying to figure out how to ask a one bed room at a hotel. I didn't know the Italian word for "bed", so I started to think. Is it "cama", as in Spanish? "Camma"? No, it sounds un-Italian. How it is said in French? Lit. Is there a similar word in Spanish? Yes, lecho. And then I thought, lecho, lit, a regular derivation from Latin: leche, lait, latte! (who doesn't know what latte is?), so I thought lecho, lit, letto, and said "letto" which did the trick. A couple of years later I was watching an Italian movie and heard "vai letto", with a "go to bed" in the subtitle. It was my the confirmation.

Philology has been one of my many intellectual interest for years, so don't think I haven't read about what you are talking about. Not enough to expose about the subject in and using English, but I can still spot what the real deal is.
 
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Caballeros, todos.

As one long signed up but only newly active on JREF, I am getting only now a sense of board dynamics and poster preferences. I arrive from being very active on a site that allows for only polite discourse, among advanced practitioners of science for the most part (plus fanboys such as myself).

Deeper than any surface arguments we might engage in here is what we set and respect as our own personal goals. I can tell you, though much much harder, holding oneself to the straight and narrow of gentlemanly discourse, in spite of the odd bad day/post, has much going for it in terms of quality of discussion and learning.

Olowow, alec, and other posters, I enjoy discussions with you. You can see I am hard on science, yet try to be soft on people. Might I enjoin you to endeavor the same? We can get a lot more accomplished that way, and have so much more fun, which is what it is all about.

/grotesque sermonizing, sorry.
 
One night in Panama, near the Atlantic side, I needed to get back to Panama City, and was waiting at a bus stop. When a bus arrived I would say, "A Panama?"

The people standing at the bus stop then knew enough to grab me by the back of the shirt and pull me off if I was about to get on a bus that wasn't going to Panama City.

In this case the lack of sophistication/fluency was actually useful. If I had said something more correctly, chances are I would get a more sophisticated answer that I might not be able to decode.
 
bone-crashingly funny.

For those who appreciate humour within the change of language codes: Sign language. (there are thousands)

I'd be tempted to, er, borrow that WHOA sign. Precious!

There was a street near where I grew up called Woodstock Ave. The street signs rarely lasted a week anytime they were replaced. (Wasn't me, honest!)
 

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