Deeper than primes - Continuation

Status
Not open for further replies.
The case of the not so truthful speaking Doron:

Exhibit A:
"There exists a set X (this is the part that uses set's platonic level of existence) such that (this is the part that uses set's non-platonic level of existence (the level of members, which defines set's identity, but not set's platonic level of existence)) {} is a member of X and, whenever a set y is a member of X, then S(y) is also a member of X."

Exhibit B:
This is my last post to you on this subject.

Please look at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10039964&postcount=3903.

Now take
doronshadmi said:
"There exists a set X (this is (a) part of the axiom) such that (this is (b) part of the axiom) {} is a member of X and, whenever a set y is a member of X, then S(y) is also a member of X."

and omit what is written in italic letters within the brackets

( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zermelo...om_of_infinity )
... there exists a set X such that the empty set Ø is a member of X and, whenever a set y is a member of X, then S(y) is also a member of X.


and here it is.



Yeah, well... not really. Shadmi fumbles again and loses the ball...

Doron, even you can see that what you are doing here is silly...

You started out claiming Exhibit A was exactly what the ZFC definition was, and in Exhibit B you just write something else...

The question was, where did you get the quote for Exhibit A from? Nowhere, that's where. You just made it up.

This one is also for your upcoming error post.
 
Last edited:
If one reads http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10041415&postcount=3920 he\she can easily realize that the first quote is titled by my name (which means that it is not the original Wikipedia quote, as appears in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zermelo–Fraenkel_set_theory#7._Axiom_of_infinity).

End of discussion on this case.

So, what took you *so* long to admit this? Hmmm?

To the casual onlooker it would seem that you wanted to confuse matters by acting as if something you claim was actually in a real definition.

This is not the first time you have been caught redhanded. Nor will it be the last.

By no means end of discussion since I guess some other people and me might discuss your dishonest looking tactics in more detail with pointers to where you did the same thing and maybe with some speculation as to why you need to resort to these methods....
 
Great! So there will be no more pretense on your part that any of this shadmized philosophy is in any way part of ZFC. It is all just doron-fantasy.

No. The end of the discussion is about Little 10 Toes request ( http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10041415&postcount=3920 ), as also explained in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10042281&postcount=3923.

It does not mean that Philosophically is not part of ZFC.

Since your basic notion is based on complete separation between Philosophy and Mathematics, your quote above is the best you can get.
 
Last edited:
It does not mean that Philosophically is not part of ZFC.

Oh, but it does. The only way you have been able to "show" that your odd philosophy is part of ZFC is by you cramming it in in an attempt to displace the real philosophic basis for ZFC then pretending it was there all along.

You've admitted as much in your response to Little 10 Toes. Are you now recanting your recant?
 
Oh, but it does.
Please support your "Oh, but it does" by explicitly demonstrate how what you call real philosophic basis is an actual part of ZFC framework.

the real philosophic basis for ZFC
It is no more than the currently accepted point of view of one level reasoning.

You've admitted as much in your response to Little 10 Toes. Are you now recanting your recant?
No. The notions of your one level reasoning are ineffective if used to deduce finer resolutions of Philosophical AND Mathematical framework like ZFC.
 
Please support your "Oh, but it does" by explicitly demonstrate how what you call real philosophic basis is an actual part of ZFC framework.

Gee, Doron, your very next sentence admits ZFC has a philosophic basis that isn't the latest confusion you've been peddling:

It is no more than the currently accepted point of view of one level reasoning.

Now, I am not endorsing the accuracy of your statement; I'm just observing that it acknowledges a foundation to ZFC that isn't at all like yours.

No. The notions of your one level reasoning are ineffective if used to deduce finer resolutions of Philosophical AND Mathematical framework like ZFC.

If true, then you should be able to point to where ZFC is influenced by the basis you claim it has. Then again, that would require you actually nail down what this philosophy of yours really is, and that will never happen. It would be too much like defining your terms, only harder.
 
Gee, Doron, your very next sentence admits ZFC has a philosophic basis that isn't the latest confusion you've been peddling:
jsfisher, I talking about a framework which is logically Philosophical AND mathematical. So please try once again to demonstrate your "Oh, but it does" by using your one level reasoning.

Edit:
Now, I am not endorsing the accuracy of your statement;
You can't say any useful thing about two levels reasoning by using a one level reasoning. But the other way around is possible, because it includes one level reasoning as some special case of it.

Edit:
I'm just observing that it acknowledges a foundation to ZFC that isn't at all like yours.
You are using weaker foundation, such that Philosophy is not an integral factor of any given mathematical framework.

If true, then you should be able to point to where ZFC is influenced by the basis you claim it has.
By using Philosophy AND Mathematics it has be pointed out in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10039964&postcount=3903.

... and that will never happen.
It indeed will never happen if one insists that Philosophy AND Mathematics is logically false framework.
 
Last edited:
jsfisher, I talking about a framework which is logically Philosophical AND mathematical. So please try once again to demonstrate your "Oh, but it does" by using your one level reasoning.

You didn't understand it the first time, and I see no point in repeating it. Besides, this is all a distraction with you trying to shift the burden. Your claim; your burden.

You can't say any useful thing about two levels reasoning by using a one level reasoning. But the other way around is possible, because it includes one level reasoning as some special case of it.

Yeah, we've seen this nonsense from you before. You have special powers of perception and reasoning no one else (and I literally mean no one else) can match, and no one else can possibly understand your genius.

Or, you are completely confused.

The latter seems more likely. [The latest AAH'ed posts from Jabba's immortality thread pay tribute to your confusion, Doron.]


All that aside, though. What point are you honestly hoping to make? Not the little picky bits you dwell on; what's the real conclusion you want to present?
 
The latter seems more likely. [The latest AAH'ed posts from Jabba's immortality thread pay tribute to your confusion, Doron.]

I missed a Jabba & Doron thread! Just for the entertainment I read the AAH!

As for the conclusions... I think all of us 'veterans' know deep in our heart that Doron will never go beyond claiming something that is 'bickerworthy'.

We tried the 'ok, if everyone would agree, then what?' route already and that got us nowhere.

Whatever claim is ever made the algorithm for processing it will be this:

1 - Doron makes a claim
2 - If someone disagrees, then Doron will present endless arguments and will respond to any counter argument until it gets to the 'you don't get it' stage.
3 - If everyone agrees, then Doron will ignore that and post, out of the blue, completely new claims that have not advanced the whole concept or philosophy of Doron one iota. Go to 2.

Doron is extremely predictable. I wonder if I can make a claim for the $1.000.000 by predicting the course of Doron's progress with his philosophy over the next 5 years....
 
You didn't understand it the first time,
You don't understand it at all times when one level reasoning and separation between Philosophy and Mathematics are the fundamental notions of your mathematical framework, now please explicitly demonstrate your "Oh, but it does" Philosophical AND Mathematical framework.

You have special powers of perception and reasoning no one else
Ridiculous drama, that is played by a person that avoids the linkage among two levels of existence, where one level is logically tautological existence, and the other level is logically non-tautological existence as shown in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10039964&postcount=3903, which is philosophical AND mathematical framework.
 
Last edited:
By set theory like ZFC, there exits a set whether it is empty or non-empty.

It means that set's existence is independent of its minimal identity, which is being empty or non-empty.

By using Logic, one easily understands that the independence of set's existence from its minimal identity (identified as empty or non-empty), is as follows:

1) Set's existence is always true (tautology).

2) Members' existence is not always true (it is not a tautology).

In other words, the essential notion of set is logically involved with two levels of existence, where one level is always true (tautology), and the other level is not always true (it is not a tautology).

These logical terms are so easily deduced, yet they can't be captured by any notion that does not distinguish between tautological existence and non-tautological existence.
 
By set theory like ZFC, there exits a set whether it is empty or non-empty.

By ZFC, there is an empty set. By ZFC, there are non-empty sets. By ZFC, there are finite sets, and there are infinite sets.

It means that set's existence is independent of its minimal identity, which is being empty or non-empty.

Identity, minimal or otherwise, is not a ZFC concept. So, the above and everything that followed have nothing to do with ZFC. Instead, they are Doronshadmi fantasy concepts.
 
By ZFC, there is an empty set.
A set is identified as empty, by defining members' existence as logically always false.
By ZFC, there are non-empty sets. By ZFC, there are finite sets, and there are infinite sets.
Sets are identified as non-empty, by defining members' existence, which is generally not a tautological existence, where this non-tautological existence is emptiness (derived from contradiction, which is the opposite (or one may use the word "complement") of tautology), finite or potentially infinite (actual infinity is logically an existence that is always true, and this is logically not the case about members' existence).
Identity, minimal or otherwise, is not a ZFC concept.
Identity, minimal or otherwise, is definitely a ZFC concept (what comes after "such that" part (or its equivalent expression) of ZFC axioms).
 
Last edited:
1) Set's existence is always true (tautology).

2) Members' existence is not always true (it is not a tautology).

The error here is, by using logic, this:

The members' existence is always true (tautology), but their relation to the set (belonging to that set) is not.

Whether an element belongs or does not belong to a set has no bearing on it's existence.

In fact, this is clear by the notion that a member can be belong to another set, or no set at all.

Furthermore, you could say that all elements that are not member of a set are always member of the set 'not member of set X'.

Therefore this whole tautology/non-tautology talk is wrong.

There, I have used logic.
 
Furthermore, you could say that all elements that are not member of a set are always member of the set 'not member of set X'.

Be careful with that. You need to enforce limited comprehension or some hierarchy set scheme to steer clear of Russel's Paradox.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Back
Top Bottom