Wittgenstein's "Philosophical Investigations" & Private Language

[Questioninggeller]

I need some help with this:

Wittgenstein wrote, "individual words are to refer to what can only be known to the person speaking; to his immediate sensations" (Philo. Invest.-- Sec. 243).

Does Wittgenstein think a private language exists, that is it is a language that cannot be understood by anyone but the person who came up with the language nor can it be taught to anyone else?

I am not supposed to use any outside source than Wittgenstein's direct/original text.

My response: I think no one can because if you are able to have your own language than you cannot express it to anything nor anyone. Thus language is a tool to communicate and if you can't communicate what you feel it is just an sensation. --I need some agruments for this or against this to help me further explore his ideas

 

[Lucifuge Rofocale]

Language also is the way to structurate our internal world and way of thinking. In W framework, a private language can exist.

 

[Questioninggeller]

Language also is the way to structurate our internal world and way of thinking. In W framework, a private language can exist.

Thanks, that helps. That why I posted I knew I wouldn't get it the concept.

So the private language is a way in which the mind communicates within itself?

Is the definiton of the sign given when ever the sensation is felt?

Also he has no "criterion of correctness" so how can we know is the same sensation everytime?

 

[BillyTK]

Thanks, that helps. That why I posted I knew I wouldn't get it the concept.

So the private language is a way in which the mind communicates within itself?

Is the definiton of the sign given when ever the sensation is felt?

Also he has no "criterion of correctness" so how can we know is the same sensation everytime?

Well, that seems to be the point that W's making with the idea of a private language, that there is no objective measure that the sign ever corresponds wholly and directly with the sensation (or vice versa).

But saying that, I don't think that Wittgenstein actually believed private language exists anyway. The purpose of suggesting a private language was to illustrate the difference between different kinds of language games... umm,this webpage explains it better than I could.

 

[Questioninggeller]

Well, that seems to be the point that W's making with the idea of a private language, that there is no objective measure that the sign ever corresponds wholly and directly with the sensation (or vice versa).

But saying that, I don't think that Wittgenstein actually believed private language exists anyway. The purpose of suggesting a private language was to illustrate the difference between different kinds of language games... umm,this webpage explains it better than I could.

Thanks

 

[Lucifuge Rofocale]

Well, that seems to be the point that W's making with the idea of a private language, that there is no objective measure that the sign ever corresponds wholly and directly with the sensation (or vice versa).

But saying that, I don't think that Wittgenstein actually believed private language exists anyway. The purpose of suggesting a private language was to illustrate the difference between different kinds of language games... umm,this webpage explains it better than I could.

From the link...
"
>The expressions 'private', 'inner', 'hidden' are all attempts to capture this distincitive grammar, and might therefore be regarded as marking a boundary between our psychological language-game and the language-game of physical description. W. does not wish to deny the aptness of these pictures, but his overall aim is to get us to recognize that the distinction which they are intended to capture is, at bottom, a grammatical one."