GreedyAlgorithm
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- Aug 29, 2005
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Here is a short primer on how to avoid mangling the principle of indifference: never use it to justify assigning probability 1/n for any small integer n (like 2, for instance, yielding probability 0.5) to an untestable hypothesis, because you're probably fooling yourself.
Now here's a longer primer!
First let's check the font of human wisdom, wikipedia.
H: This die will land on a 1 when rolled, given that it lands on one of its faces like normal, rolled like normal.
If I said to you "Due solely to the principle of indifference, you should assign probability 1/6 to H.", I would be wrong. Why is this? Because each of the possibilities, 1-6, are not indistinguishable except for their names. There is a different amount of mass removed due to indentations, different amounts of black ink and white ink on each side, etc. But due to the principle of indifference + our knowledge of physics, we can say "the differences between the sides are almost certainly insignificant and I don't know which way they'd bias the die anyway" and conclude P(H)~=1/6.
Seems easy, right? But it's easy to slip up and misapply. Take this example:
G: God exists and he created the world some time ago and gave us false memories.
Call Gn the hypothesis that he did this n minutes ago. What's wrong with saying "Due to the principle of indifference, P(G1|G) = P(G2|G) = P(G3|G) = P(G4|G) = ..."? Aren't all of these hypotheses indistinguishable except for their names? Don't they exhaustively cover the possibility space given G? Aren't they mutually exclusive?
Easiest first. They're definitely mutually exclusive, as God can only create the world once that we care about. We're talking about the world we think we know of, so no pedantic other universes or whatever. And they're exhaustive, because we're abstracting "one-and-a-half minutes ago" into G2. So they must be distinguishable - but how? There is no possible test we can do to tell the difference between any of the two hypotheses!
Do you see what I did there? It's tricky. I just equivocated the word "indistinguishable". See, in mathematics, indistinguishable means something very specific, and it's not "inability to tell the difference via experiment" or whatever. Instead, look at the possibilities themselves. If the only difference between them is the names we give them, then they are indistinguishable. Note: not the "only detectable difference", the only difference. And in this case there is a very real difference between G1 and G2. In one the world has existed for longer and God's original fake-out was slightly less of a fake than in the other, regardless of whether we can ever tell which is which.
So they're distinguishable. The principle of indifference does not apply. What can we do instead, anything? It turns out yes, we can, but that's the subject of another post. The main result is that for sufficiently loose definitions of "smaller", the smaller n is, the larger Gn probably is. Smaller numbers are in a very real sense "less complex" than larger numbers.
Now here's a longer primer!
First let's check the font of human wisdom, wikipedia.
So, for example, suppose you have a standard 6-sided die. You have a hypothesisWikipedia said:Suppose that there are n > 1 mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive possibilities. The principle of indifference states that if the n possibilities are indistinguishable except for their names, then each possibility should be assigned a probability equal to 1/n.
H: This die will land on a 1 when rolled, given that it lands on one of its faces like normal, rolled like normal.
If I said to you "Due solely to the principle of indifference, you should assign probability 1/6 to H.", I would be wrong. Why is this? Because each of the possibilities, 1-6, are not indistinguishable except for their names. There is a different amount of mass removed due to indentations, different amounts of black ink and white ink on each side, etc. But due to the principle of indifference + our knowledge of physics, we can say "the differences between the sides are almost certainly insignificant and I don't know which way they'd bias the die anyway" and conclude P(H)~=1/6.
Seems easy, right? But it's easy to slip up and misapply. Take this example:
Now this is a provocative point! Suppose for the sake of argument thatMalerin said:That's the part that's driving me nuts! How many competing theories are there to explain reality? Infinite! We can't assign them all an agnostic value. Example:Fredrik said:I have to ask: Do you think there's a better option? And in that case, what is it? Should we just assume that everything is equally likely?
God exists and he created the world 5 minutes ago and gave us false memories.
God exists and he created the world 4 minutes ago and gave us false memories.
I can literally create billions of competing theories with this alone by dividing time into smaller and smaller units. But should we be agnostic about each one? But that doesn't make sense. If you roll a fair die, you can't be agnostic about each number. You have to assign a .16666 value to each possible outcome.
G: God exists and he created the world some time ago and gave us false memories.
Call Gn the hypothesis that he did this n minutes ago. What's wrong with saying "Due to the principle of indifference, P(G1|G) = P(G2|G) = P(G3|G) = P(G4|G) = ..."? Aren't all of these hypotheses indistinguishable except for their names? Don't they exhaustively cover the possibility space given G? Aren't they mutually exclusive?
It's clear that something is wrong because if we try to use the principle of indifference like this, then for any positive probability p, P(G1|G) < p. Proof: sum(P(Gk|G),k=1..1+1/p) < 1 ==> P(G1|G) < 1/(1+1/p) < p. So then P(Gn|G) = 0 for all n, but that doesn't work, because the laws of probability say limit(sum(P(Gk|G),k=1..n),n->inf) = 1.
Easiest first. They're definitely mutually exclusive, as God can only create the world once that we care about. We're talking about the world we think we know of, so no pedantic other universes or whatever. And they're exhaustive, because we're abstracting "one-and-a-half minutes ago" into G2. So they must be distinguishable - but how? There is no possible test we can do to tell the difference between any of the two hypotheses!
Do you see what I did there? It's tricky. I just equivocated the word "indistinguishable". See, in mathematics, indistinguishable means something very specific, and it's not "inability to tell the difference via experiment" or whatever. Instead, look at the possibilities themselves. If the only difference between them is the names we give them, then they are indistinguishable. Note: not the "only detectable difference", the only difference. And in this case there is a very real difference between G1 and G2. In one the world has existed for longer and God's original fake-out was slightly less of a fake than in the other, regardless of whether we can ever tell which is which.
So they're distinguishable. The principle of indifference does not apply. What can we do instead, anything? It turns out yes, we can, but that's the subject of another post. The main result is that for sufficiently loose definitions of "smaller", the smaller n is, the larger Gn probably is. Smaller numbers are in a very real sense "less complex" than larger numbers.
The answer here is that in the absence of any evidence, each possible theory must be evaluated per its complexity and then we get a situation like the Gns above: a ton (infinity) of distinguishable theories, some more complex and thus intrinsically less likely than others. But the mere fact that you cannot in practice tell the difference between two theories does not make them indistinguishable from a principle of indifference standpoint, and if you try to assign probability 0.5 to one of them,Malerin said:How about this one:
1. We die and cease to exist
2. We die and go to heaven
3. We die and reincarnate
4. We die and merge with the one-mind
5. We die and Baal takes us to the 8th circle of Hell
Without any evidence, does that mean there's a low chance we cease to exist when we die because there are 4 other competing theories? Or should theories 2-5 be combined into one all-ecompassing theory: we die and don't cease to exist. That would get you back to at least an agnostic value between exisence after death and non-existence. But can you just lump a bunch of different theories together?
I can't answer your question. It's bugged me for a long time.
GreedyAlgorithm said:you're probably fooling yourself