FireGarden
Philosopher
- Joined
- Aug 13, 2002
- Messages
- 5,047
I'm not entirely sure how to phrase my question...
The observable universe expands, like the rest of the universe. But as it does so, is there more and more of the universe in it? Specifically, if there's a galaxy currently outside of the visible universe, will we ever see it?
As we look further into space we see events that occured further back in time. Let's say today is t=0 and that decoupling (when the universe became transparent) happened at t=-15. So we can see 15 into the past and no further. At t=1, we'll be able to see 16 (Or, atleast, more than 15) into the past, but are we seeing the same event (decoupling) as it happened in a more distant part of the universe than when we saw it at t=0, or is all that extra distance due to expansion? IE: are we still seeing the same point in space when labelled with co-moving co-ordinates? (Imagine an expanding chessboard. a2 is always 1 square up from a1. Let a2 be the limit of the observable chessboard at t=0. At t=1 the chessboard is bigger, but is a2 still the limit of observability?)
Another attempt is,
Suppose at t=0 we see no stars before t=-14 but see stars after t=-14, then at t=1 we should see a similar "landmark", but these cannot be the same "first" stars. Has the observable universe expanded to include points that were not in it at t=0? Are the "first" stars that we see at t=1 merely marking a point in space that was visible to us at t=0 but was merely dark to us because the light hadn't reached us yet from the stars that were ignited at the same time as those we saw at the t=0 "landmark"?
I hope that one of the formulations of the question makes sense.
Google is not being helpful today...
The observable universe expands, like the rest of the universe. But as it does so, is there more and more of the universe in it? Specifically, if there's a galaxy currently outside of the visible universe, will we ever see it?
As we look further into space we see events that occured further back in time. Let's say today is t=0 and that decoupling (when the universe became transparent) happened at t=-15. So we can see 15 into the past and no further. At t=1, we'll be able to see 16 (Or, atleast, more than 15) into the past, but are we seeing the same event (decoupling) as it happened in a more distant part of the universe than when we saw it at t=0, or is all that extra distance due to expansion? IE: are we still seeing the same point in space when labelled with co-moving co-ordinates? (Imagine an expanding chessboard. a2 is always 1 square up from a1. Let a2 be the limit of the observable chessboard at t=0. At t=1 the chessboard is bigger, but is a2 still the limit of observability?)
Another attempt is,
Suppose at t=0 we see no stars before t=-14 but see stars after t=-14, then at t=1 we should see a similar "landmark", but these cannot be the same "first" stars. Has the observable universe expanded to include points that were not in it at t=0? Are the "first" stars that we see at t=1 merely marking a point in space that was visible to us at t=0 but was merely dark to us because the light hadn't reached us yet from the stars that were ignited at the same time as those we saw at the t=0 "landmark"?
I hope that one of the formulations of the question makes sense.
Google is not being helpful today...