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Supreme Court Tosses TX Election Map

applecorped

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http://www.reuters.com/article/2012/01/20/us-usa-politics-texas-idUSTRE80J16A20120120

"The Supreme Court on Friday ruled in a Texas political dispute, rejecting judge-drawn election maps favoring minority candidates and Democrats in the 2012 congressional and state legislature elections.
In its first ruling on political boundary-drawing based on the 2010 U.S. Census, the high court unanimously set aside the interim maps created by federal district court judges in San Antonio.


The dispute had been closely watched because it could help decide whether Republicans or Democrats gain as many as four seats in the U.S. House of Representatives in November."
 
Let's use computer models, ffs. This is the best explanation I've found on minority districts, and I still find it fairly ridiculous.
 
Isn't it, sort of, the goal to change the law?

Until it is changed, it must be complied with. Elections and representation are core American values. They ought to cross party lines. I know that both parties do not have similar regard for fairness or legality, so I know that it will be abused, and so, the law is the only standard we can rely upon.
 
So I see the SCOTUS said that the federal court had to redraw the maps. What are the criteria given for the redraw?
 

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