Crundy
Critical Thinker
- Joined
- Feb 8, 2008
- Messages
- 475
I noticed a few people getting quite angry with Dr Malik for using the term 'Allopathy' to refer to conventional Western medicine, and so I thought I'd consult the dictionary:
http://www.askoxford.com/results/?v...llopathy&branch=13842570&textsearchtype=exact
Weird. Personally I don't agree with this, because not all CWM drugs have effects opposite to the symptoms (using the original homeopathy example, quinine), and so do you think the Oxford Dictionary definition needs refining, or is this correct?
http://www.askoxford.com/results/?v...llopathy&branch=13842570&textsearchtype=exact
(Emphasis mine)allopathy
• noun: the treatment of disease by conventional means, i.e. with drugs having effects opposite to the symptoms. Often contrasted with HOMEOPATHY.
— DERIVATIVES allopath noun allopathic adjective allopathist noun.
Weird. Personally I don't agree with this, because not all CWM drugs have effects opposite to the symptoms (using the original homeopathy example, quinine), and so do you think the Oxford Dictionary definition needs refining, or is this correct?